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Exam Code: RF0-001
Exam Name: CompTIA (RFID+ Certification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 162 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 In a facility with several automated print and apply printers, cases frequently get to the palletizer without
RFID labels. One way to correct this is to:
A. install an interrogation zone down stream from the labeler with a reject system.
B. have an interrogator on the palletizer.
C. use better quality labels.
D. use a hand-held interrogator to scan for missing labels at end of production line.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Cases are going to be tagged and stored in a humid, high temperature area. Which of the following
types of labels would be needed?
A. Poly-coated with gum adhesive.
B. Direct thermal with gum adhesive.
C. Poly-coated with water base adhesive.
D. Paper with gum adhesive.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following materials have absorptive properties in relation to ultra high frequency (UHF)?
(Select TWO).
A. Damp cardboard
B. Glass
C. Conductive liquids
D. Metal
Answer: AC

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NO.4 Which of the following conditions would be MOST likely to cause a ghost tag read?
A. The interrogator did not pass electronic product code (EPC) compliance testing.
B. There is a broken strap between the chip and the antenna on the tag.
C. There are too many tags within an interrogator zone.
D. There is RF interference in an interrogator zone.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Loss of connection between an interrogator and the edgeware/middleware would result in which of the
following?
A. Only active RFID tag data would be processed.
B. No tag data would be processed.
C. Tag data would be sent directly to the Warehouse Management System (WMS).
D. Only interrogator status would be tracked.
Answer: B

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NO.6 RFID media should be stored in:
A. electrostatic discharge (ESD) protected packaging.
B. metal containers.
C. rolls of ten.
D. the order that it was received.
Answer: A

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NO.7 While troubleshooting an interrogation zone, a technician discovers that the antenna wires have torn
free of their connectors. Which of the following would be the FIRST step for the technician to take?
A. Secure the cables so they cannot tear free again.
B. Crimp a new end on the cable.
C. Power down the interrogator.
D. Attach the repaired cable to the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Tags placed on small boxes uniformly stacked on a pallet are unreadable unless the pallet is rotated.
This is a symptom of tag:
A. propagation.
B. size.
C. shadowing.
D. polarity.
Answer: C

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NO.9 All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

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NO.10 A new batch of tags is received for an existing system. When the new tags are introduced into the
system, the interrogation zones stop transmitting tag data. Which of the following is MOST likely the
source of the problem?
A. The new tags are all bad.
B. The new tags are the wrong type for the system.
C. A tag virus has been introduced by the new tags.
D. The interrogators have issued the kill command to the tags.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following RFID tags would be BEST for inconspicuous tagging of assets containing a
maximum of eight bytes of data and are inductively coupled?
A. Active 433.92 MHz tag with strategically installed fixed interrogators.
B. Passive 13.56 MHz tag that is affixed to the asset and camouflaged requiring continuous loop
interrogation.
C. Passive Gen 2 tag requiring line of sight backscatter interrogation.
D. Active 433.92 MHz tag requiring modulated backscatter interrogation.
Answer: B

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NO.12 For a corrugated case filled with liquor bottles containing metal lids, all of the following locations are
acceptable for optimizing the performance of a passive high frequency (HF) RFID smart label EXCEPT on
the: (Select TWO).
A. side near the bottom where there is the most amount of liquid.
B. side near the top where there is the least amount of liquid.
C. bottom where there is the most amount of glass.
D. top near the metal lids.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 A company wants to track personnel using RFID with a resolution within 10 feet (3.1 meters). Which of
the following RFID systems would provide the BEST results?
A. Active Real Time Locating System (RTLS)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID system with hand-held interrogators
C. Passive high frequency (HF) RFID system with interrogators at entry points
D. Global Positioning System (GPS)
Answer: A

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NO.14 When troubleshooting an interrogation zone, an operator observes that the interrogator is not
responding to external input or reading tags. The lights are on indicating it has power and network
connectivity. Which of the following would be the next step for the operator to take?
A. Replace the antenna cable.
B. Replace the interrogator.
C. Reboot the interrogator.
D. Reboot the antenna.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Desktop industrial RFID-enabled bar code printers handle an inoperative tag by:
A. sending an error to the host.
B. printing 'void' or some other marking on the label.
C. ejecting the label.
D. ignoring it and continuing.
Answer: B

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NO.16 An Electronic Product Code (EPC) Class 1 Gen 2 RFID system reads the EPC data from memory bank
zero, but the 64-bit EPC code is always zero. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the
problem?
A. The EPC code is stored in Bank 1.
B. The tag has been killed.
C. The EPC code was never written to the tag.
D. The access password is zero.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following technologies would provide the BEST read range when attached to a
corrugated metal freight container that is 40 feet (12.4 meters)?
A. Passive 13.56 MHz from a one watt interrogator/antenna
B. Passive 860 - 960 MHz from a 4 watt interrogator/antenna C. Active 433.92 MHz, operating at 10 mW
D. Active 2450 MHz, operating at 10 mW
Answer: C

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NO.18 It is important to know where an RFID inlay is located within a tag during printing because: (Select
TWO).
A. the inlay location directs the printer to print landscape or portrait.
B. the inlay sets the speed of the printer.
C. printing over the chip may cause damage.
D. timing from leading edge is critical to the encoding process.
Answer: CD

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NO.19 When firmware upgrades become available, which of the following should the technician consider
FIRST?
A. How to install the upgrade.
B. When to schedule the upgrade.
C. Whether the upgrade can be downloaded from the internet.
D. The benefits of new upgrade.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Ideally, as a tag passes though the antenna read window it should be:
A. inside metal foil.
B. on the same plane as the antenna.
C. at least 30 feet (9.3 meters) from the antenna.
D. facing away from antenna.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: FC0-U11
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Strata Fundamentals of PC Functionality Exam)
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Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2000
domain-based network. A user working on a Windows 2000 Professional client computer reports that he
is unable to access some files on the hard disk. However, he is able to successfully log on and access
other files. What should Mark do to resolve the issue?
A. Instruct the user to log off and log on again.
B. Enable the user account on the computer.
C. Check the file permissions on the hard disk drive.
D. Check the hard disk drive using the SCANDISK utility.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following refers to the data rate supported by a network connection or interface?
A. Spam
B. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE)
C. Bandwidth
D. Branding
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following slots on a motherboard are best for a video card? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. EISA
D. AGP
Answer: B, D

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NO.4 Which of the following is designed to infiltrate or damage a computer without the consent of the owner.?
A. Shareware
B. Malware
C. Freeware
D. Stealware
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about a smart card are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a device that contains a microprocessor and permanent memory.
B. It is used to securely store public and private keys for log on , e-mail signing and encryption, and file
encryption.
C. It is a device that routes data packets between computers in different networks.
D. It is a device that works as an interface between a computer and a network.
Answer: A, B

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NO.6 You are working in a Windows network environment. Which of the following accounts/groups have
many advanced permissions not needed by occasional users? Each correct answer represents a part of
the solution. Choose two.
A. Guest
B. Standard user
C. Administrator
D. Power Users
Answer: C, D

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NO.7 Which of the following is used by Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) to provide data encryption?
A. IDEA
B. TKIP
C. RSA
D. RC4
Answer: B

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a wireless local area network
(WLAN). You want to prevent your wireless access point from being accessed by intruders. What will you
do to accomplish the task?
A. Implement auditing.
B. Implement WEP.
C. Implement SSL.
D. Implement IPSec.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following parts of the computer is built-in to the motherboard?
A. Joystick
B. Mouse
C. Sound card
D. CD-ROM drive
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following is a file management tool?
A. Windows Explorer
B. Device Manager
C. MSCONFIG
D. Defrag
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following cache levels are implemented on microprocessors? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Level 5 (L5) cache
B. Level 2 (L2) cache
C. Level 0 (L0) cache
D. Level 1 (L1) cache
Answer: B, D

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NO.12 Which of the following is a circuit board that is used to extend slots for expansion cards and provides the
ability to connect additional expansion cards to the computer?
A. Audio/modem riser
B. Secure Digital (SD) card
C. Riser card
D. Communication and Networking Riser (CNR)
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following identifies a wireless network and is sometimes referred to as a "network name"?
A. BSSID
B. SSID
C. BSS
D. IBSS
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are working with a team that will be bringing in new computers to a sales department at a company.
The sales team would like to keep not only their old files, but system settings as well on the new PC's.
What should you do?
A. Do a system backup (complete) on each old machine, then restore it onto the new machines.
B. Copy the files and the Windows Registry to a removable media then copy it onto the new machines.
C. Use the User State Migration tool to move the system settings and files to the new machines.
D. Use the Disk Management tool to move everything to the new computer.
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following types of parental controls is used to limit access to the Internet contents?
A. Monitoring control
B. Usage management tool
C. Content filter control
D. Bandwidth control
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is the maximum cable length to connect a device to an IEEE 1394a port?
A. 12 meters
B. 5 meters
C. 4.5 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements does the UK Parliament state in the Computer Misuse Act 1990?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Unauthorized access to the computer material is punishable by 6 months imprisonment or a fine "not
exceeding level 5 on the standard scale".
B. Personal data shall be adequate, relevant, and not excessive in relation to the purpose or purposes for
which they are processed.
C. Appropriate technical and organizational measures shall be taken against unauthorized or unlawful
processing of personal data and against accidental loss or destruction of, or damage
D. Unauthorized modification of computer material is subject to the same sentences as section 2
offences.
Answer: A, D

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NO.18 A customer has come to you wanting upgrade the video card in his laptop. What would you
recommend?
A. A PCI Express card
B. Upgrade is not possible
C. A PCMCIA card
D. An AGP Card
Answer: B

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NO.19 You are selecting memory to put in to a laptop. Which of the following types of RAM chips would you
most likely select?
A. 72 PIN
B. 240 PIN
C. 184 PIN
D. 144 PIN
Answer: D

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NO.20 You need to alter disk partitions in Windows XP prior to upgrade to Windows Vista. Which Windows
utility should you use for this?
A. Disk Defragmenter
B. The Registry
C. Disk Management
D. System Configuration Utility
Answer: C

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NO.1 It is desired to restrict access to the [IPC$] share to one specific machine. The setting hosts allow =
192.168.0.3 is added to the share configuration. Later it is discovered that other workstations may still
access it. What setting was forgotten in the share configuration? (Enter the parameter and any options or
values)
A.HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/0,HOSTSDENY=0.0.0.0/
0,DENYHOSTS=0
Answer: A

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NO.2 The following output is generated when trying to obtain tickets from the Kerberos realm: # kinit
user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ Password for user@SUB.DOMAIN.BIZ kinit(v5): Clock skew too great while
getting initial credentials How can the problem be fixed? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ntpdate domaincontroller; hwclock -systohc
B. kinit -t
C. killall -HUP krb5kdc
D. Modify the time_sync value in the kdc.conf file.
E. Modify the clockskew value in the krb5.conf file.
Answer: A, E

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NO.3 Which of the following is true about the following share access properties? (Choose TWO correct
answers.) [projects]path = /data/projects read only = noadmin users = timo, taki, +managers
A. +managers will be resolved as a Winbind group.
B. The timo and taki users can manipulate files regardless of the file system permissions.
C. +managers will be resolved as a Unix group.
D. +managers is a builtin default Samba group.
E. The "admin users" can be applied only to print shares.
Answer: B, C

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NO.4 There are multiple network interfaces on a server. Which parameters must you set in smb.conf to limit
on which interfaces Samba will accept connections? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. listen interfaces
B. bind interfaces only
C. interfaces
D. listen address
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 When setting up roaming profiles in a Windows network which includes Windows 98 desktops, which
Samba parameter must be set?
A. logon drive
B. logon home
C. logon path
D. logon script
Answer: B

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NO.6 In /etc/smbldap-tools/ which file contains the DN and password for the LDAP manager?
A. smbldap.conf
B. ldap.conf
C. smbldap_bind.conf
D. slapd.conf
Answer: C

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NO.7 What DHCP option can be set on a ISC DHCP server to tell NETBIOS clients that the WINS server
has the IP address 192.168.1.2?
A. option netbios-wins-servers 192.168.1.2;
B. option wins-netbios-servers 192.168.1.2;
C. option wins-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
D. option netbios-name-servers 192.168.1.2;
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command from the Samba Suite is used to retrieve information on the mapping between
NetBIOS names and IP addresses?
A. NMBLOOKUP
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the meaning of a NetBIOS hybrid node (h-node) type client?
A. Client performs a broadcast and does not query WINS.
B. Client queries WINS first, and then broadcasts.
C. Client broadcasts first, and then queries WINS.
D. Client only queries WINS and does not broadcast.
E. Client only queries lmhost local file.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which are the FOUR parameters (in the correct order) to be set in the name resolve order directive, to
use the following name resolution order?
1. Use lmhosts file entries 2 Use a server especified in the 'wins server' directive
Use broadcast
Use default DNS lookup Answer:
A. LMHOSTSWINSBCASTHOST
Answer: A

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NO.11 When no WINS server is present, all name registrations and lookups are done by UDP _______.
A. broadcast
B. multicast
C. unicast
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command would create a machine account in Active Directory under the
Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers organizational unit?
A.net rpc join -m localhost -ldap="ldap.ldapserver.com:Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
B.rpcclient -c "join Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
C.net ads join ou="Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
D.net ads join "Computers\BusinessUnit\Department\Servers"
Answer: D

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NO.13 When migrating files from a Windows server A to a Samba server B with the command 'net rpc share
migrate files -S A -destination=B -acls -attrs -U administrator', some files that originally belong only to a
Windows group (no user) will generate errors during the migration. Which option in smb.conf will force
such files to be mapped to the correct UNIX UID and GID?
A. use acl = yes
B. map group acls = yes
C. force unknown acl user = yes
D. inherit acls = no
Answer: C

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NO.14 Users are reporting that they can access all user home directories on the server in addition to their
own. What value must be added to the valid users parameter in the [homes] section of smb.conf to
disallow this behaviour? (Enter only the required value, do not include the parameter name)
A. %S
Answer: A

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NO.15 The _____________ parameter in the smb.conf file will set hidden files in Linux to also be hidden in
windows. (Please specify ONLY the parameter with no value assignment.)
A. HIDEDOTFILES
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which port must be open in a firewall to allow access to rdesktop?
A. 3389
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following statements are true when creating NETBIOS names? (Select TWO correct
answers.)
A. NETBIOS names can only use alphanumeric characters.
B. You can use a '.' in a NETBIOS name.
C. You can use an '_' (underscore) in a NETBIOS name.
D. NETBIOS names must be UPPERCASE
E. NETBIOS names can be a maximum of 32 characters
Answer: B, C

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NO.18 After installing a network with one Samba server and several clients, users are complaining that they
receive an Unable to browse the network error when trying to visit a public share. What is the most likely
cause of this?
A. The user entered the wrong username and/or password.
B. The nmbd process is not running on the Samba server.
C. The user hasn't mapped the share to a local drive letter yet.
D. The Samba server is not configured as a Domain Master Browser.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following commands will mount a remote Samba share when the user is Winuser and the
password is somepass?
A. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
B. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser,password=somepass \\SERVER\share
/media/sambashare
C. mount -t smbfs -o Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
D. mount -t smbfs -o username=Winuser%somepass //SERVER/share /media/sambashare
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which smb.conf configuration keyword determines the hostname resolution order?
A. use ads
B. name resolve order
C. use nsswitch.conf
D. use resolv.conf
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which of the following development libraries are used to make Samba compatible with ADS? (Select
TWO correct answers.)
A. Kerberos
B. CUPS
C. LDAP
D. Win32
E. IMAP
Answer: A, C

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NO.22 .How is VFS (Virtual File System) support enabled in Samba?
A. Samba does not support VFS.
B. Compile and load vfs.ko kernel module.
C. Compile and load vfs.ko and its dependent smbfs kernel modules.
D. Compile and load pvfs.ko kernel module.
E. Compile Samba with VFS module support.
Answer: E

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NO.23 Which node type will use only NetBIOS broadcast requests using UDP broadcast?
A. b-node (type 0x01)
B. p-node (type 0x02)
C. m-node (type 0x04)
D. h-node (type 0x08)
Answer: A

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NO.24 The response times on a Samba server are gradually increasing, so it is decided to experiment with
various socket options in smb.conf. Which of the following are valid values for this parameter? (Choose
THREE correct answers)
A. TCP_NODELAY
B. SO_NOBROADCAST
C. SO_TXBUF
D. IPTOS_LOWDELAY
E. SO_KEEPALIVE
Answer: A, D, E

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NO.25 Which port is used for "NetBIOS-less" SMB traffic? Answer:
A. 445
Answer: A

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NO.26 Which of the following commands would you run to add your machine to an NT4 domain?
A. net rpc join -S PDC -UAdministrator%password
B. net ads join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
C. net rpc join -s PDC -UAdministrator%password
D. net ads join -W PDC -nAdministrator%password
Answer: A

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NO.27 In which section of the smb.conf configuration file is the logon script declared?
A. [homes]
B. [netlogon]
C. [global]
D. [profiles]
Answer: C

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NO.28 .A ______ server stores NetBIOS names and IP addresses of SMB/CIFS clients.
A. WINS
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following should be backed up before a Samba version upgrade? (Choose TWO correct
answers.)
A. Libraries
B. TDB files
C. Configuration files
D. Binaries
E. winbindd_privileged directory
Answer: B, C

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NO.30 By default, Windows XP requires that passwords on your Samba server:
A. Do not exceed 32 characters.
B. Contain both numbers and letters.
C. Are encrypted.
D. Are changed every 30 days.
Answer: C

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NO.1 Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate data loss if a portable device is compromised?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Common access card
C. Strong password complexity
D. Biometric authentication
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following reduces the likelihood of a single point of failure when a server fails?
A. Clustering
B. Virtualization
C. RAID
D. Cold site
Answer: A

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NO.3 In an 802.11n network, which of the following provides the MOST secure method of both encryption
and authorization?
A. WEP with 802.1x
B. WPA Enterprise
C. WPA2-PSK
D. WPA with TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following asymmetric encryption keys is used to encrypt data to ensure only the intended
recipient can decrypt the ciphertext?
A. Private
B. Escrow
C. Public
D. Preshared
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following should be performed if a smartphone is lost to ensure no data can be retrieved
from it?
A. Device encryption
B. Remote wipe
C. Screen lock
D. GPS tracking
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following requires special handling and explicit policies for data retention and data
distribution?
A. Personally identifiable information
B. Phishing attacks
C. Zero day exploits
D. Personal electronic devices
Answer: A

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NO.7 With which of the following is RAID MOST concerned?
A. Integrity
B. Confidentiality
C. Availability
D. Baselining
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols should be blocked at the network perimeter to prevent host
enumeration by sweep devices?
A. HTTPS
B. SSH
C. IPv4
D. ICMP
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following elements of PKI are found in a browser's trusted root CA?
A. Private key
B. Symmetric key
C. Recovery key
D. Public key
Answer: D

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NO.10 A new enterprise solution is currently being evaluated due to its potential to increase the company's
profit margins. The security administrator has been asked to review its security implications. While
evaluating the product, various vulnerability scans were performed. It was determined that the product is
not a threat but has the potential to introduce additional vulnerabilities. Which of the following assessment
types should the security administrator also take into consideration while evaluating this product?
A. Threat assessment
B. Vulnerability assessment
C. Code assessment
D. Risk assessment
Answer: D

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NO.11 DRPs should contain which of the following?
A. Hierarchical list of non-critical personnel
B. Hierarchical list of critical systems
C. Hierarchical access control lists
D. Identification of single points of failure
Answer: B

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NO.12 A system administrator could have a user level account and an administrator account to prevent:
A. password sharing.
B. escalation of privileges.
C. implicit deny.
D. administrative account lockout.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where are revoked certificates stored?
A. Recovery agent
B. Registration
C. Key escrow
D. CRL
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following protocols only encrypts password packets from client to server.?
A. XTACACS
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. TACACS+
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following methods of access, authentication, and authorization is the MOST secure
by default?
A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. RADIUS
D. LDAP
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following is specific to a buffer overflow attack?
A. Memory addressing
B. Directory traversal
C. Initial vector
D. Session cookies
Answer: C

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NO.17 Centrally authenticating multiple systems and applications against a federated user database is an
example of:
A. smart card.
B. common access card.
C. single sign-on.
D. access control list.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following facilitates computing for heavily utilized systems and networks?
A. Remote access
B. Provider cloud
C. VPN concentrator
D. Telephony
Answer: B

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NO.19 WEP is seen as an unsecure protocol based on its improper use of which of the following?
A. RC6
B. RC4
C. 3DES
D. AES
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following should a security administrator implement to prevent users from disrupting
network connectivity, if a user connects both ends of a network cable to different switch ports?
A. VLAN separation
B. Access control
C. Loop protection
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam)
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NO.1 Which of the following should Joe, a technician, do FIRST when setting up a SOHO network?
A. Set up an account with an Internet service provider.
B. Create a list of requirements and constraints.
C. Arrange a domain name with a suitable registrar.
D. Choose the correct operating system version.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Joe, a network technician, is tasked with installing a router and firewall to get an office working with
Internet access.
Which of the following features MUST be configured to allow sharing of a single public IP address?
A. QoS
B. POP3
C. PAT
D. SMTP
Answer: C

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NO.3 Sandy, the network administrator, has funding to do a major upgrade of the company s LAN. This
upgrade is currently in the planning stage, and Sandy still needs to determine the network requirements,
bottlenecks, and any future upgrades in mind. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the planning
process?
A. Conduct a vulnerability scan
B. Establish a network baseline
C. Conduct traffic analysis
D. Conduct a risk assessment
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following sizes is the fixed cell length in ATM?
A. 8 bytes
B. 53 bytes
C. 64 kilobytes
D. 128 kilobytes
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following TCP/IP and OSI model layers retransmits a TCP packet if it is not received
successfully at its destination?
A. The transport OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
B. The transport OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
C. The network OSI model layer and the transport TCP/IP model layer
D. The network OSI model layer and the Internet TCP/IP model layer
Answer: A

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NO.6 Joe, a user, is unable to reach websites, but is able to ping several Internet IPv4 addresses. Which of
the following is the MOST likely problem?
A. Incorrect subnet mask
B. Incorrect DNS
C. Missing default gateway
D. Incorrect IPv6 address
Answer: B

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NO.7 Sandy, a network administrator, wants to be able to block all already known malicious activity.
Which of the following would allow her to perform this activity.?
A. Behavioral Based IDS
B. Signature Based IDS
C. Behavioral Based IPS
D. Signature Based IPS
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following is a form of encrypting packets for safe, secure data transmission within a
network?
A. RAS
B. PPTP
C. IPSec
D. ICA
Answer: C

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NO.9 A company has only three laptops that connect to their wireless network. The company is currently
using WEP encryption on their wireless network. They have noticed unauthorized connections on their
WAP and want to secure their wireless connection to prevent this.
Which of the following security measures would BEST secure their wireless network? (Select TWO).
A. Change the encryption method to WPA
B. Limit the DHCP scope to only have three addresses total
C. Enable the SSID broadcast
D. Enable and configure MAC filtering
E. Change the broadcast channel to a less commonly used channel
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 Which of the following would Joe, a technician, configure to modify the time a device will hold an IP
address provided through DHCP?
A. DNS suffixes
B. Leases
C. Static IP addressing
D. Reservations
Answer: B

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NO.11 Two duplicate pieces of equipment can be used in conjunction for which of the following purposes?
(Select TWO)
A. High availability
B. Fault tolerance
C. Reduce latency
D. Wi-MAX
E. CARP
Answer: A,B

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NO.12 Which of the following connector types would Sandy, a network technician, use to connect a serial
cable?
A. RJ-11
B. BNC
C. LC
D. DB-9
Answer: D

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NO.13 Sandy, a technician, wants to limit access to a wireless network to company owned laptops, but does
not want to use an encryption method. Which of the following methods would be BEST to accomplish
this?
A. MAC filtering
B. SSL VPN
C. PPPoE
D. WPA Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.14 Joe, a technician, is configuring ports on a switch. He turns off auto-negotiation and sets the port
speed to 1000 Mbps. A user s PC is no longer able to access the network.
Which of the following is MOST likely the problem?
A. The user s NIC does not support 1Gbps
B. The switch is not compatible with 1000Mbps.
C. The user's NIC does not support 100Mbps.
D. Joe needs to restart the DNS server.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following network appliances would facilitate an even amount of traffic hitting each web
server?
A. Load balancer
B. VPN concentrator
C. Proxy server
D. Content filter
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following network topologies, when a single machine's cable breaks, would only affect one
network device and not the rest of the network?
A. Bus
B. Peer-to-peer
C. Ring
D. Star
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following network scanners detects and sends out alerts for malicious network activity?
A. Packet sniffers
B. IDS
C. Port scanners
D. IPS
Answer: B

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NO.18 Sandy, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access
the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Answer: B

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NO.19 The location that the local network connection ends and the ISP responsibility begins is known as the:
A. Access point.
B. Default gateway.
C. IDF connection.
D. Demarcation point.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication?
A. A username and PIN
B. A username and password
C. A username, password, finger print scan, and smart card
D. A username, password, and key fob number
Answer: D

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Exam Code: PK1-003
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA Project+ Beta Exam)
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Total Q&A: 240 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-14

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NO.1 A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They
support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the
project team demonstrating?
A. Storming
B. Performing
C. Conforming
D. Forming
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes the critical path of a project?
A. A modified version of a project schedule taking into account limited resources and external
dependencies.
B. The length of time between the two most critical milestones of a project.
C. The shortest possible path through a project, represented by the sum of the duration of all scheduled
activities, with zero float.
D. A PDM network diagram illustrating, in detail, all mandatory, discretionary and external dependencies
for a given project.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following quality control tools illustrates the various factors that may be linked to potential
problems or effects?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Histogram
C. Run chart
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A

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NO.4 In which of the following organization types is it LEAST likely that a conflict regarding competing
demands for resources would take place?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Balanced Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).
A. Accepting
B. Mitigating
C. Avoiding
D. Initiating
E. Closing
F. Planning
Answer: DEF

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NO.6 A project budget has been reduced by 10 percent, but the project has a critical deadline. Which of the
following should the project manager do FIRST to complete the project on time?
A. Lower the quality standards for the finished product.
B. Analyze the impact of the change.
C. Eliminate 10 percent of the projects resources.
D. Document the approved change request.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following describes a qualitative risk analysis tool that assigns ratings to project risk
factors based upon the likelihood of occurrence and the affect it will have on the project?
A. Cause and effect diagram
B. Risk register
C. Probability and impact matrix
D. Decision tree analysis
Answer: C

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NO.8 During a project status meeting a positive project risk is identified and is within the teams control.
Which of the following would be the BEST response?
A. Accept the risk.
B. Transfer the risk.
C. Mitigate the risk.
D. Exploit the risk.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following tools is the BEST to measure data organized in time sequence?
A. Run chart
B. Ishikawa diagram
C. Pareto chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following describes the LOWEST level of a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
A. Technical specifications
B. Project performance reports
C. Work packages
D. Functional specifications
Answer: C

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NO.11 Who has the MOST influence over project decisions?
A. Project team members
B. End users
C. Key stakeholders
D. Project manager
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is the purpose of a Pareto diagram?
A. To show the sequence in which work will be performed
B. To create the process that will complete the project
C. To determine the critical path
D. To direct team efforts to the areas that will have the most impact
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following activities would happen LAST in procurement management?
A. Request seller responses
B. Perform contract administration
C. Perform vendor selection
D. Perform a make or buy analysis
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following would be a direct output of the initiating process group? (Select TWO).
A. Project charter
B. Project management plan
C. Statement of Work (SOW)
D. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
E. Preliminary scope statement
Answer: AE

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NO.15 A project manager receives a request for a minor change to one of the deliverables. Which of the
following documents would MOST likely be impacted?
A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B. Project charter
C. Communication plan
D. Quality plan
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following would MOST likely be included in a project scope document?
A. WBS
B. Quality metrics
C. Risk responses
D. KPIs
Answer: D

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NO.17 A project manager is presented with a change request for an ongoing project. Which of the following
would be the FIRST action?
A. Update the project plan to accommodate the changes.
B. Perform an impact analysis.
C. Organize a stakeholder meeting to review the changes.
D. Change the project scope to reflect the change request.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following risk response strategies involves shifting the negative impact of a threat, along
with ownership of the response, to a third party?
A. Risk transfer
B. Risk avoidance
C. Risk sharing
D. Risk mitigation
Answer: A

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NO.19 The communication plan for a project is a subset of which of the following documents?
A. Project charter
B. Risk management plan
C. Project schedule
D. Project plan
Answer: D

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NO.20 A project manager reports directly to the project management office of a company. All project team
members report to a functional manager; however, all the team members work assignments are made by
the project manager. Which of the following types of organizational structures does this represent?
A. Weak Matrix
B. Functional
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which of the following tools are used for quality planning? (Select TWO).
A. Cost / Benefit analysis
B. Network diagram
C. Benchmarking
D. Critical Path Method (CPM)
E. Parametric estimating
Answer: AC

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NO.22 Design, launch, review and test are examples of which of the following work breakdown structure (WBS)
schemes?
A. Functions
B. Organizational units
C. Product components
D. Geographical areas
Answer: A

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NO.23 Two of the stakeholders cannot agree on the project timeline or budget. The project is critical to the
success of the company. Which of the following actions should the project manager take NEXT?
A. Invite all of the stakeholders to a meeting to discuss project requirements.
B. Document the points of agreement and create the timeline and budget based upon the expectations of
the majority of the stakeholders.
C. Modify the project scope to bring it into alignment with the stakeholders expectations.
D. Inform the stakeholders that the project will be cancelled if they cannot agree.
Answer: A

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NO.24 A project manager is in a projectized organization managing a particular project. A department manager
has repeatedly requested a change to the scope of the project which was previously denied. The project
is currently behind schedule. Which of the following would be the BEST way to deal with the managers
repeated request?
A. Request the manager fill out a formal request for the change and file it with the project management
office.
B. Have a team member meet with the manager so the project can stay on schedule.
C. Ask the project sponsor to respond to the department manager.
D. Implement the change as requested by the manager and inform the project sponsor.
Answer: C

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NO.25 A purpose of formal project closure is to:
A. assess blame for the failure of the project.
B. provide lessons learned for future projects.
C. start a new project.
D. outline the responsibilities of each team member.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Several key resources will be unavailable at the end of the project. The key stakeholders want to
outsource the project to a third party. Which of the following risk responses is described in this situation?
A. Risk avoidance
B. Risk mitigation
C. Risk acceptance
D. Risk transference
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of the following should be created in the project closing documentation? (Select TWO).
A. Closure report summarizing costs
B. Responsibility assessment matrix
C. Lessons learned
D. Project timeline
E. Statement of Work (SOW)
Answer: AC

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NO.28 Which of the following are required to complete the pre-project setup? (Select THREE).
A. Completion of approved change control documents
B. Preparation of the project charter
C. Completion of the work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Obtaining final approval of the project charter
E. Validation of the project
F. Completion of the key performance indicators (KPIs)
Answer: BDE

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NO.29 A customer does not have the staff available to complete a particular project, but anticipates that more
staff will be hired in the future. While the project budget has been established, the project scope has not.
Which of the following is the BEST action for the project manager to take?
A. Start the project immediately because the funding is available.
B. Start the important project; the project manager can define the scope.
C. Do not start the project because the customer has not provided enough resources.
D. Do not start the project until the scope has been clearly defined.
Answer: D

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NO.30 A project manager is two weeks into a project when an unexpected delay occurs. Material that is
needed to complete the project could be available in three business days; however, the project team
believes that estimate is unrealistic and that it will take five business days for the material to arrive. The
project manager was informed by another employee in the material company that it could take up to
thirteen days to receive the materials. Which of the following estimates should be given to the project
sponsor?
A. 5 business days
B. 6 business days
C. 8 business days
D. 13 business daysb
Answer: B

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Exam Code: JK0-015
Exam Name: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C Security+ (2008 Edition) Exam)
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Total Q&A: 1074 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-14

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NO.1 Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a
system?
A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
C. Too much information to review
D. Too many available log aggregation tools
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in
order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
A. Configuring VLAN 1
B. ACL
C. Logical tokens
D. Role-based access control changes
Answer: B

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NO.3 A user reports that each time they attempt to go to a legitimate website, they are sent to an
inappropriate website. The security administrator suspects the user may have malware on the computer,
which manipulated some of the user's files. Which of the following files on the user's system would need
to be checked for unauthorized changes?
A. SAM
B. LMhosts
C. Services
D. Hosts
Answer: D

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NO.4 An administrator needs to limit and monitor the access users have to the Internet and protect the
internal network. Which of the following would MOST likely be implemented?
A. A heuristic firewall
B. DNS caching on the client machines
C. A pushed update modifying users' local host file
D. A content-filtering proxy server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following algorithms provides better protection against brute force attacks by using a
160-bit message digest?
A. MD5
B. SHA-1
C. LANMAN
D. NTLM
Answer: B

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NO.6 An administrator wants to crack passwords on a server with an account lockout policy. Which of the
following would allow this without locking accounts?
A. Try guessing passwords slow enough to reset the bad count interval.
B. Try guessing passwords with brute force.
C. Copy the password file offline and perform the attack on it.
D. Try only real dictionary words.
Answer: C

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NO.7 USB devices with a virus delivery mechanism are an example of which of the following security threats?
A. Adware
B. Trojan
C. Botnets
D. Logic bombs
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open
for connection on a networked workstation?
A. Protocol analyzer
B. Port scanner
C. Password crackers
D. Vulnerability scanner
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is the MOST secure authentication method?
A. Smartcard
B. Iris
C. Password
D. Fingerprints
Answer: B

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NO.10 The security administrator needs to make a change in the network to accommodate a new remote
location. The new location will be connected by a serial interface, off the main router, through a
commercial circuit. This remote site will also have traffic completely separated from all other traffic. Which
of the following design elements will need to be implemented to accommodate the new location?
A. VLANs need to be added on the switch but not the router.
B. The NAT needs to be re-configured to allow the remote location.
C. The current IP scheme needs to be subnetted.
D. The switch needs to be virtualized and a new DMZ needs to be created
Answer: C

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NO.11 Mitigating security risks by updating and applying hot fixes is part of:
A. patch management.
B. vulnerability scanning.
C. baseline reporting.
D. penetration testing.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following tools limits external access to the network.?
A. IDS
B. VLAN
C. Firewall
D. DMZ
Answer: C

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NO.13 Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the
acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
A. NAT
B. NAC
C. VLAN
D. DMZ
Answer: B

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NO.14 Cell phones with network access and the ability to store data files are susceptible to which of the
following risks?
A. Input validation errors
B. SMTP open relays
C. Viruses
D. Logic bombs
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which of the following access control technologies provides a rolling password for one-time use?
A. RSA tokens
B. ACL
C. Multifactor authentication
D. PIV card
Answer: A

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NO.16 When establishing a connection between two IP based routers, which of the following protocols is the
MOST secure?
A. TFTP
B. HTTPS
C. FTP
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.17 When reviewing IDS logs, the security administrator notices many events pertaining to a "NOOP sled".
Which of the following attacks is occurring?
A. Man-in-the-middle
B. SQL injection
C. Buffer overflow
D. Session hijacking
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following is a malicious program used to capture information from an infected computer?
A. Trojan
B. Botnet
C. Worm
D. Virus
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following technologies is used to verify that a file was not altered?
A. RC5
B. AES
C. DES
D. MD5
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following uses an RC4 key that can be discovered by eavesdropping on plain text
initialization vectors?
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. SSH
D. WPA
Answer: A

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