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Exam Code: HP2-N40
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP SaaS Solutions [2013])
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 According the ALM Partner Handbook, the PC RACI chart Onboarding phase lists the task user
management. Who is responsible for defining the customer project users in the ALM add-on?
A. HP SaaS SOC
B. HP SaaS operations engineers
C. Partner CSM
D. Partner Success Manager
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the proposed HP APM on SaaS Partner Led Delivery model, the HP partner will assume
responsibility for which project phase?
A. implementation and on-going configurations maintenance throughout the course of the
relationship with the end customer
B. initial implementation of the project
C. on-going configurations maintenance only
D. HP APM on SaaS core product setup, implementation, and on-going maintenance throughout the
course of the relationship with the end customer.
Answer: D

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NO.3 For any valid HP SaaS contracts, you will receive a unique service agreement ID (SAID), or SaaS
SAID. As an HP software partner you will also have one or more valid software product SAIDs. When
contacting Hp SaaS support which assumption is true?
A. The SaaS SAID is an identifier for HP-internal use only. You will contract the HP Software Support
helpdesk using your existing Software Products SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the
requests appropriately depending on the type of requests or incidents.
B. You will use your SaaS contract SAID primarily for HP SaaS infrastructure related issues. For HP
Software products related issues. You will submit other requests using your Software product SAID.
C. For the duration of the HP SaaS Contract, you will use the SaaS SAID for SaaS infrastructure
related issues and HP Software Products related issues.
D. You will contract the Generic HP Software Support helpdesk using either the SaaS SAID or your
existing Software Product SAID. The HP engineers will then dispatch the requests appropriately
depending on the type of request or incident.
Answer: D

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NO.4 You open a severity critical issue and have been working with an SOC engineer to solve the
problem. The time to resolve exceeds the SLO defined in the support datasheet, and you believe
you are not making progress. You feel you need to escalate further. According to the ALM Partner
Handbook, what is the protocol?
A. Send an email to SaaS Support with the subject line: 911.
B. Call the SOC and ask to speak to the lead manager on duty.
C. Contact the sales representative to help you resolve the issue.
D. Contact your Partner Success Manager as your first management escalation point.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which statements accurately describe the scope of the HP APM on SaaS partner Delivery
Handbook? (Select two.)
A. It describes how to integrate BSM on premises installation to the HP APM on Saas.
B. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document provides a step-by-step guide on how to install,
configure, and maintain HP APM on SaaS.
C. The handbook provides guidelines for support and indicates reference materials that will allow
you to effectively manage your HP APM Software engagement with your Customers.
D. The APM on SaaS partner handbook describes the APM on SaaS partner-led delivery offering with
descriptions of your roles and responsibilities in the offering.
E. The APM on SaaS partner handbook document is a list of definitions and key terminologies used
by HP SaaS personnel.
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Which statement is true about the protocols that are supported on HP SaaS Global Business
Process Monitors?
A. All protocols that are already supported in the latest HP Vugen Software version are supported.
B. The up-to-date list of supported protocols in published on the HP APM User Guide, in the End
User Management section.
C. The list of supported protocols is not public and can be obtained only through the HP SaaS 24 /7
Server Operations Center (SOC).
D. Only HTTP is supported.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which integration can be categorized as non-standard HP APM on SaaS? (Select two.)
A. Integration of on-premises HP data collectors such as HP BPM Software
B. Data exports via FTP
C. Monitoring alert event integration out of HP APM
D. Enterprise management System (EMS) to HP APM on SaaS
E. Integrations requiring a site-to- site VPN
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 How do you find the requirements and process document to connect your BPM software
on-premises (or internal BPMs) to HP APM on SaaS?
A. Find this document on the HP Partner Central Repository Portal.
B. Access the SaaS Library repository form the HP SaaS APM Admin tab.
C. Log a service request with HP SaaS Support to supply the documentation and process support.
D. Contact your HP Partner Success Manager to get you a copy of the documentation and process
support.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP5-K03D
Exam Name: HP (Delta - Supporting and Servicing HP 3PAR StoreServ Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What must be done prior to running HP 3PAR SmartStart?
A. The service laptop needs to be connected to the StoreServ system.
B. The Service Processor and StoreServ system must be connected to the same subnet
C. An installation service call must be placed with HP Central,
D. A zone must be created between the StoreServ system and the Service Processor.
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer has three HP 3PAR StoreServ 10000 systems in different sites on their
metropolitan campus The FC-based SANs within the different sites consist of B-series 8 Gbps
switches with an active port-based zoning. Between the sites, there is a 10 Gbps Ethernet
connection.
Which remote copy configuration should you recommend?
A. N-to-1 Configuration
B. Synchronous Long Distance Configuration
C. Unidirectional 1-to-1 Configuration
D. 1-to-N Configuration

NO.3 A customer has an existing c70fJ0 enclosure, with 6 blades and FlexFabric modules. You have
been asked to install 5 additional blades for a virtualization project. The customer requires shared
storage for a Hyper-V cluster.
Their existing storage infrastructure is 1Gb iSCSI.
What would be the most cost-effective method for adding a new 3PAR storage?
A. Directly attach the FC Host ports of the c7000.
B. Install SAN Switch Modules in the c7000.
C. Install two Brocade 8 / 8 SAN Switches
D. Upgrade the network switches to 10GB
Answer: A

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NO.4 Your customer has an existing HP 3PAR F400 array with two controller nodes and eight DC3
disk enclosures Each DC3 disk enclosure is fully populated with 300GB 15k disk drives.
The customer has purchased a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node system with five additional
drive enclosures to be installed in a second data center. This system is fully populated with 450GB
10k drives. Data will be migrated from the F400 to the 7400 by using Remote Copy Fibre Channel
(RCFC). The 7400 will then become the primary system, but data will continue to be replicated
between the systems. Additionally, the customer has ordered extra 8GB/S FC adapters for the new
7400.
What is the maximum number of configurable host ports on the new HP StoreServ 7400 array in the
customer environment?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
Answer: D

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5. Your customer has an existing HP 3PAR F400 array with two controller nodes and eight DC3
disk enclosures. Each DC3 disk enclosure is fully populated with 300GB 15k disk drives.
The customer has purchased a new HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400 two-node system with five additional
drive enclosures to be installed in a second data center. This system is fully populated with 450GB
10k drives Data will be migrated from the F400 to the 7400 by using Remote Copy Fibre Channel
(RCFC). The 7400 will then become the primary system, but data will continue to be replicated
between the systems. Additionally, the customer has ordered extra 8GB/s FC adapters for the new
7400.
During the installation you record these serial numbers for the new HP 3PAR StoreServ system:
HP serial number CZ32439658
3PAR serial number 1628580
Which SPID is assigned during the installation?
A. SP0001628580
B. SP32439658
C. 1628580
D. 00032439658
Answer: A

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Reference:http://bizsupport2.austin.hp.com/bc/docs/support/SupportManual/c03603825 /c036038
2 5.pdf(page 7, second bullet)
6. Which statements are true about the HP 3PAR StoreServ 7000? (Select two.)
A. Within a column, there can be empty slots between drives.
B. Columns of drives must be of the same drive type and rotational speed for HDDs.
C. Drives must be added in identical pairs.
D. The LFF enclosure cannot be mixed with the SFF enclosure on the same node pair,
E. All columns have to contain the same number of drives.
Answer: B,C

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7. Your customer plans to build a two-tier architecture with one HP 3PAR StoreServ 7400. Layer 1
should be the SSD Tier, and Layer 2 should be the Fast Class Tier. After the SmartStart configuration
is complete, the customer connects to the system through the InformOS Management Console.
Which default CPGs are created during the process of initializing the storage system?
A. SSD RAID 1 and 5: Fast Class 1 and 6 default CPGs
B. SSD RAID 1 and 5: Fast Class 1 and 5 default CPGs
C. SSD RAID 1,5,and 6; Fast Class 1 and 6 default CPGs
D. SSD RAID 1 and 5 FastClass 1,5 and 6 default CPGs
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HH0-110
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Foundations - Enterprise Exam)
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Total Q&A: 164 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You wish to virtualize three external devices on a VSP using Universal Volume Manager. Which
parameter should you consider modifying to avoid high cache write pending?
A. Path Mode
B. Cache Mode
C. Priority Mode
D. I/O Suppression Mode
Answer: B

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NO.2 One of your customers used Universal Volume Manager (UVM) to virtualize their heterogeneous
storage systems by attaching them to a VSP as external storage. Which two UVM tasks were performed
during the virtualization process? (Choose two.)
A. UVM Discovery of the External target ports.
B. External volumes on the external storage were mapped as Open-9 emulations.
C. Initiator ports were set on the VSP to connect to the external storage systems.
D. External ports were set on the VSP to connect to the external storage systems.
Answer: A,D

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NO.3 Which two actions are needed when configuring TrueCopy replication on a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Set ports on the MCU to Initiator.
B. Set ports on the RCU to Initiator.
C. Add an RCU.
D. Add an MCU.
Answer: A,C

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NO.4 Which two transport methods can HiTrack use to report SIMs to the Hitachi Data Systems Global
Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. FTP
B. HTTPS
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 A customer is deploying a new OLTP database on a VSP that will have a high performance requirement.
They are considering using SSD flash drives, but would like to avoid putting the entire database on SSD.
SAS drives will be sufficient for the majority of the workload. Which Hitachi technology should be used to
simplify the management of this dynamic workload across SSD and SAS tiers?
A. Hitachi Dynamic Tiering
B. Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning
C. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
D. Hitachi Universal Volume Manager
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are two components of a storage cluster in a VSP? (Choose two.)
A. Front-end Directors (FED)
B. Fiber Switches (FSW)
C. Virtual Storage Directors (VSD)
D. Service Processors (SVP)
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is the purpose of Hitachi Universal Replicator?
A. It migrates data between VSP and AMS storage systems.
B. It maintains a consistent copy of data.
C. It creates synchronous copies of data.
D. It migrates data from competitive arrays.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is a primary component of Hitachi Virtual Partition Manager?
A. Port Logical Partition
B. Disk Logical Partition
C. Cache Logical Partition
D. Cache Physical Partition
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the allocation size and unit used by Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning on a VSP?
A. 16 MB stripe
B. 42 MB page
C. 1024 KB slot
D. 64 MB chunk
Answer: B

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NO.10 A business that generates large amounts of sensitive data has an IT system combining mainframe and
Open-Systems applications. They need a storage solution offering highly secure data storage with
minimal performance impact and costs, and consistent with their green data center policy.
Which three VSP storage system features meet these requirements? (Choose three.)
A. VSP can encrypt data in cache before de-staging to disk.
B. VSP Virtual Storage Directors have a built in encryption capability.
C. VSP offers encryption capabilities to Open-Systems and mainframe applications.
D. VSP reduces capital cost by removing the need for discrete encryption devices.
E. VSP encryption creates no measurable increase in heat output or energy consumption.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.11 A storage administrator wants to script a TrueCopy operation in an Open Systems environment.
Which two components are required? (Choose two.)
A. Command Device
B. Storage Navigator 2
C. RAID Manager CCI
D. replication.conf file
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 A customer has a ShadowImage pair that is currently suspended and the P-Vol is corrupted. They
perform a quick restore. When can they safely start using the data on the P-Vol?
A. after the P-Vol and S-Vol swap CU:LDEV numbers
B. after all of the data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
C. after the bitmap is transferred and dirty tracks are marked
D. after the difference data is copied from the S-Vol to the P-Vol
Answer: A

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NO.13 A customer is evaluating Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) because they are interested in thin
provisioning. What are two other benefits provided by HDP.? (Choose two.)
A. increased performance using wide striping
B. volume creation without formatting time
C. enhanced data protection using more RAID Groups
D. automatic migration between FC and SATA pools
Answer: A,B

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NO.14 A customer has prepared TrueCopy scripts and now wants to create the first replication pairs in an
Open Systems environment. Which two steps must be completed before issuing TrueCopy commands?
(Choose two.)
A. Configure HORCM files.
B. Install RAID Manager CCI.
C. Ensure that the S-Vols are visible to a host.
D. Configure external ports.
Answer: A,B

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NO.15 What does the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager "Path Health Check" feature provide?
A. It detects link issues before data I/O is affected.
B. It automatically removes the paths where an intermittent error is occurring.
C. It monitors load balancing.
D. It automatically places a recovered path back online.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HH0-400
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Architect-Business Continuity)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 99 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which is required for I/O consistent recoverability?
A.Clustering software is in use at the recovery facility.
B.Recovery volumes have preserved write order fidelity.
C.Buffers on production hosts were fully de-staged to physical disk.
D.Log shipping is used to transfer transactions to the recovery facility.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which formula is appropriate to use when calculating resource requirements for TrueCopy
Asynchronous?
A.Bandwidth = [(peak write Mb/sec) / network compression ratio] + safety margin
B.Journal Capacity = (peak write Mb/sec) * anticipated network outage duration (minimum of 6 GB)
C.Number of RAID groups for journal volumes = (peak write Mb/sec) / (total throughput per RAID group)
D.Host delay = 2 * [(distance between MCU and RCU) / (speed of light in glass)] + losses due to network
overhead
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two risks when extending a production SAN over distance? (Choose two.)
A.A telecommunications outage will segment the fabric.
B.RSCN storms may ensue from intermittent telecommunications issues.
C.Any differences in domain IDs on the fabric switches between the sites will keep the fabrics from
merging.
D.Some Fibre Channel frames may occasionally cross the inter-site links and reach the incorrect storage
array.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What are three regulatory requirements pertaining to data retention? (Choose three.)
A.Basel II
B.ISO 9000
C.SEC rule 17a
D.Email Archiving
E.Sarbanes-Oxley Act
Answer: ACE

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NO.5 What are two best practices for DR testing? (Choose two.)
A.Tests should be done at least twice a year.
B.The secondary copy of data (B) can be used as the DR test copy.
C.Testing should only be performed when new applications are added.
D.When using a point-in-time copy solution, another copy (D) should be used for DR testing purposes.
Answer: AD

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NO.6 Basel II is the second Basel Accord and represents recommendations by bank supervisors and central
bankers from 13 countries making up the Basel Committee on banking supervision to revise the
international standards for measuring the adequacy of a bank's capital.
Which three statements are true for Basel II? (Choose three.)
A.It can easily be circumvented by regulatory arbitrage.
B.It ensures that capital allocation is less risk conscious.
C.It ensures that capital allocation is more risk conscious.
D.It separates operational risk from credit risk, and quantifies both.
E.It attempts to align economic and regulatory capital more closely to reduce the scope for regulatory
arbitrage.
Answer: CDE

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NO.7 A customer is using TrueCopy to replicate a database's data and log volumes.
Which strategy will assist the customer with recovery from logical corruption such as a mistakenly
dropped table?
A.Use ShadowImage to create point-in-time copies for recovery.
B.Use TrueCopy for data volumes only. Use log shipping to transfer individual transactions to the recovery
facility.
C.Manage database checkpointing so that logs retain sufficient transactions to allow playback up to the
corruption event.
D.Inflow control should be used to throttle incoming write traffic so that updates can be identified and
prevented prior to their application onto the secondary volumes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two statements are true for RPO? (Choose two.)
A.If the recovery point is within hours, no replication is necessary.
B.If the recovery point is within minutes, asynchronous (or off-line) replication may be suitable.
C.If the recovery point of an application is set to within seconds of a disaster occurring, synchronous (or
live) replication (duplication) of data should be considered.
D.Global clustering, manual migration or tape restore are various options that are dependent on the
acceptable time scales required to restore systems to full operations.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 A customer's regulatory requirements require that they will have valid data at the recovery site
regardless of any equipment or logical failure in the system or environment.
How many DR site point-in-time copies are required if they want to be able to perform recovery testing?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer is using TrueCopy Asynchronous to continuously replicate a database's data and log
volumes.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A.A database checkpoint should be forced immediately upon failover.
B.In the case of a planned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
C.In the case of an unplanned outage, log volumes may not include all transactions.
D.At recovery time, the database will rollback all uncommitted transactions in the logs.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: HH0-450
Exam Name: Hitachi (Hitachi Data Systems Storage Architect-Hitachi NAS Platform)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A customer environment consists of a Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster connected to a Hitachi
AMS2500 with SATA disk drives in RAID-6 configuration. The customer is using this solution primarily for
data backup and is expecting optimal write performance and optimal reliability. Which "SATA Write &
Compare" mode should be used?
A. SATA Write & Compare Full
B. SATA Write & Compare Enabled
C. SATA Write & Compare Disabled
D. SATA Write & Compare Optimal
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer wants to use the data migration function with their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which three
criteria are used by this function? (Choose three.)
A. by last access
B. by source file system block size
C. by file name
D. by path
E. by protocol type
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 A customer with a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 wants to implement anti-virus scanning. In which Hitachi
NAS Platform related document do you find information about supported anti-virus scan engine software?
A. the Access Control List (ACL)
B. the Administration Guide
C. the Independent Software Vendor (ISV) list
D. the Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)
Answer: C

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NO.4 Why should you set superflush in a Hitachi NAS Platform?
A. to improve read performance
B. to improve write performance
C. to flush data from the NVRAM to the sector cache
D. to flush data from the sector cache to the storage system
Answer: B

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NO.5 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform connected to a Hitachi AMS2300 requires file
level replication to another Hitachi NAS Platform. However, there is a concern over the large numbers of
files and about the high change rate as the replication time window is small. What should be done to
reduce the replication time?
A. Use Transfer Primary Access.
B. Use the changed directory list option.
C. Migrate the admin EVS to the node replicating the data.
D. Create an additional IP address on the source EVS.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer has a Hitachi AMS2100 attached to a 2-node Hitachi NAS Platform 3090 cluster. They
initially purchased 15 TB and have just purchased an additional 5 TB. They now need to expand their
existing storage pools. What must be considered when expanding the storage pools.?
A. All system drives must be of the same size in terms of capacity.
B. All system drives must be offline.
C. All system drives must be in the same system drive group.
D. All storage pools must be offline.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A customer is planning to use the JetMirror functionality on their Hitachi NAS Platform. Which two are
required from the customer to plan the implementation? (Choose two.)
A. the size of the storage pools in use
B. the number of files used
C. the distance to the destination system
D. if systems are managed by a common SMU
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 You are designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to migrate files to a Hitachi Content Platform (HCP).
Which configuration method must be used?
A. Use the connector wizard.
B. Use the CLI command xvl-path-add.
C. Use the CLI command external-path-add.
D. Use the CLI command migration-add-external-path.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer has a heterogenous server and desktop operating systems environment. Users are
experiencing authentication issues across multiple OS platforms. Which business-related qualifiers are
relevant for designing a Hitachi NAS Platform solution to resolve these issues?
A. backup window and SLAs
B. type of external authentication
C. number of concurrent sessions/users
D. type of users' tasks and responsibilities
Answer: B

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NO.10 Your customer is planning to purchase a Hitachi NAS Platform model 3200 cluster. Which type of
optical 10 GbE interface will they need for their network switches?
A. Twinax
B. XENPAK
C. SFP+
D. XFP
Answer: D

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NO.11 When configuring iSCSI initiators, which two must be configured to facilitate dynamic target (server)
discovery from the Hitachi NAS platform? (Choose two.)
A. the iSCSI LUN
B. the iSCSI target portal
C. the iSCSI IQN
D. the iSNS
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which three documents are required deliverables as part a Hitachi NAS Platform data migration service?
(Choose three.)
A. the file system migration workbook
B. the network topology diagram
C. the NAS service workbook
D. the NAS migration hardware configuration sheet
E. the hardware inventory sheet
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 You are asked to design a Hitachi NAS Platform solution for a customer with existing Hitachi storage
systems installed. The existing storage and SAN infrastructure should be used wherever possible. Which
two can be re-used? (Choose two.)
A. spare Qlogic 2310 HBAs
B. Fibre Channel switches
C. Hitachi AMS500 storage systems
D. Hitachi 7700E storage systems
Answer: B,C

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NO.14 A production Hitachi NAS Platform is connected to a Hitachi VSP with a storage pool consisting of SATA
drives. To improve performance, the customer wants to migrate to SAS drives on an externalized Hitachi
AMS2300 with minimal customer involvement and minimal impact to the system and users. Which two
products should be deployed? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi Universal Replicator
B. Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager
C. Hitachi Device Manager
D. Hitachi Tuning Manager
Answer: B,C

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NO.15 A customer wants to discuss manual site failover design. The solution design must guarantee the
replication of file system snapshots. What should the customer use?
A. TrueCopy
B. Intelligent Data Replication
C. Incremental Data Replication
D. Transfer Primary Access
Answer: A

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NO.16 The administrator of a production Hitachi NAS Platform 3200 wants to maximize potential performance
and fault tolerance to an attached Hitachi USP V storage system. Which configuration should be used?
A. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
B. Use hports 1, 2, 3 and 4 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 of
the USP V.
C. Use hports 4, 5, 6 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to different FED ports on cluster 1 of
the USP V.
D. Use hports 1, 3, 5 and 7 of the Hitachi NAS Platform to connect to FEDs on cluster 1 and cluster 2 on
the USP V.
Answer: D

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NO.17 A customer is running a multimedia based application and is looking for a Hitachi NAS Platform 3200
solution that is capable of generating 2 GB/s throughput using the NFS protocol. They will reuse an
existing Hitachi USP V and attach it behind the Hitachi NAS Platform. What information should you gather
before designing a solution meeting the customer's business requirements? (Choose two.)
A. percentage of read and writes
B. number of file systems
C. NIS server details
D. number of FEDs and BEDs
Answer: A,D

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NO.18 A customer must have 24/7 uptime on their Hitachi NAS Platform 4-node 3200 cluster. They need to
complete a major upgrade on each of the 4 nodes and must have a method of failing over their production
services to a non-production cluster. Which two topics must be discussed with the customer prior to the
major upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. automatic failover using HiTrack
B. the purchase of a backup cluster
C. establishing a Server Farm
D. use of MPIO for failover
Answer: B,C

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NO.19 Your customer is planning a disaster recovery site and they need to know the form factors of the
Hitachi NAS Platform models for physical planning purposes. Which two statements are correct ?
(Choose two.)
A. The 3090 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 3 rack units high.
B. The 3080 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 2 rack units high.
C. The 3200 fits into a 19 inch rack and is 4 rack units high.
D. The 3090 and 3100 fit into a 19 inch rack and are of the same height.
Answer: A,C

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NO.20 A customer has a Hitachi NAS Platform 3100 cluster dual fabric attached to a Hitachi AMS 2000 Family
storage system in a fault tolerant configuration containing multiple EVSs.. What would cause all of the
EVSs to fail?
A. The preferred SD path fails.
B. An AMS controller fails.
C. The SIM blade fails.
D. A SAN switch fails.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HD0-400
Exam Name: HDI (HDI Qualified Customer Support Specialist)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the most important reason why Support Centres monitor incidents?
A. Incident monitoring is done by all good Support Centres.
B. Incident monitoring is an ITIL best practice.
C. Incident monitoring is the Support Centre primary function.
D. Incident monitoring results in improved quality of services.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Certkiller .com calls with a problem you know they could solve using the Support Centre
web site. What is a best practice for encouraging the customer to try self-help?
A. Ask if they have tried the website and give them the answer.
B. Respectfully talk them through the self-help process.
C. Send them an e-mail with a link to the web site.
D. Tell them that the answer is on the web site and give them the URL.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement best describes a team?
A. A team is a forum for creativity and self expression.
B. A team is a group of people working to accomplish the same goals.
C. A team is a group of strong personalities.
D. A team is an open, honest environment.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the best reason for using paraphrasing?
A. Using paraphrasing gives the customer a chance to tell you if you have understood
them.
B. Using paraphrasing increases the customer knowledge of technical terminology.
C. Use paraphrasing to repeat the customer words back to them.
D. Use paraphrasing to tell the customer what they should have done.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How can active listening help you?
A. Active listening helps to build a wider knowledge base for the organisation.
B. Active listening improves overall performance against SLAs.
C. Active listening increases the customer level of satisfaction.
D. Active listening reduces the need for you to talk all day.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Your help desk/support centre wishes to become a model for best practice, what is one of
the main sources of excellent information and advice to help achieve this?
A. A web master magazine.
B. Senior management meetings.
C. Knowledge Centred Support.
D. The marketing department.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which statement best describes the concept of teamwork?
A. Teamwork involves competing with others to prove you are the best.
B. Teamwork involves having all team members participate.
C. Teamwork involves keeping ideas to yourself in case they do not work.
D. Teamwork involves working separately to achieve personal goals.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is the most important reason for maintaining legal compliance in the Support
Centre?
A. Maintaining legal compliance prevents employees from downloading music.
B. Maintaining legal compliance prevents unauthorised internet usage.
C. Maintaining legal compliance protects identity information.
D. Maintaining legal compliance protects your personal rights.
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a best practice for effective cross-cultural communication?
A. Ask open questions.
B. Increase the pace of the call.
C. Repeat everything that the customer says.
D. Use proper language expressions.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is most likely to be a barrier to communication?
A. The customer ability to use self-help systems.
B. The customer previous experience with the Support Centre.
C. The customer position in the business.
D. The level of support provided by the Support Centre.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which is a best practice for dealing with stress?
A. Drink more water.
B. Ignore the stress.
C. Take short naps when you can.
D. Talk to someone about your concerns.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is a best practice for negotiating with Certkiller .com?
A. Look at the problem from the customer perspective.
B. Only provide a service that is included in the SLA.
C. Strictly follow the Support Centre policies.
D. Transfer the customer to your supervisor if they disagree with you.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statement best describes a problem?
A. A problem is a group of incidents that recur occasionally.
B. A problem is a group of incidents with different symptoms.
C. A problem is a significant incident with an unknown cause.
D. A problem is a single incident with a known solution.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a best practice for dealing with an abusive customer?
A. Ignore the customer language.
B. Maintain your professionalism.
C. Show empathy and sympathy.
D. Use your active listening skills.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the most important reason for using customer satisfaction surveys?
A. Customer satisfaction surveys allow customers to say what they really think without
offending Support Centre staff.
B. Customer satisfaction surveys help to determine if customer service expectations are
being met.
C. Customer satisfaction surveys provide an accurate set of management reports on SLA
performance.
D. Customer satisfaction surveys provide information that can be used to assess blame
for problems.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement best describes your role in the incident management process?
A. Conduct customer satisfaction surveys for each incident.
B. Escalate all incidents to other groups.
C. Log and document all incidents.
D. Resolve each incident to the customer satisfaction.
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is a best practice for call management?
A. Listen to the customer description of the incident.
B. Provide the customer with details of the SLA.
C. Ask the customer for a written communication.
D. Use the CRM system to guide the call.
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is the best description of your role in supporting customers?
A. Ensure that the customer complies with the SLA.
B. Manage the customer expectations.
C. Pass all customer inquiries to level 2 support.
D. Resolve all customer incidents without escalation.
Answer: B

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NO.19 When is it most appropriate to escalate an incident to a manager?
A. Escalate an incident if the customer begins to complain.
B. Escalate an incident the customer is emotional.
C. Escalate an incident if the customer requests to speak to a manager.
D. Escalate an incident if the Support Centre is short of staff.
Answer: C

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NO.20 What behaviour should be avoided when talking with Certkiller .com on the telephone?
A. Addressing the customer by name.
B. Asking the customer technical questions.
C. Telling the customer to hold.
D. Using terms of endearment.
Answer: D

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NO.1 EnCase uses the _________________ to conduct a signature analysis.
A. Both a and b
B. file signature table
C. hash library
D. file Viewers
Answer: B

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NO.2 The acronym ASCII stands for:
A. American Standard Communication Information Index
B. American Standard Code for Information Interchange
C. Accepted Standard Code for Information Interchange
D. Accepted Standard Communication Information Index
Answer: B

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NO.3 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
that would result. Bob@[a-z]+.com
A. Bob@New zealand.com
B. Bob@My-Email.com
C. Bob@America.com
D. Bob@a-z.com
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is the proper formula for determining the size in bytes of a hard drive that uses
cylinders (C), heads (H), and sectors (S) geometry?
A. C X H + S
B. C X H X S + 512
C. C X H X S X 512
D. C X H X S
Answer: C

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NO.5 Within EnCase, clicking on Save on the toolbar affects what file(s)?
A. All of the above
B. The evidence files
C. The open case file
D. The configuration .ini files
Answer: C

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NO.6 A physical file size is:
A. The total size in sectors of an allocated file.
B. The total size of all the clusters used by the file measured in bytes.
C. The total size in bytes of a logical file.
D. The total size of the file including the ram slack in bytes.
Answer: B

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NO.7 In Unicode, one printed character is composed of ____ bytes of data.
A. 8
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Answer: C

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NO.8 The default export folder remains the same for all cases.
A. True
B. False
Answer:

NO.9 If cluster number 10 in the FAT contains the number 55, this means:
A. That cluster 10 is used and the file continues in cluster number 55.
B. That the file starts in cluster number 55 and continues to cluster number 10.
C. That there is a cross-linked file.
D. The cluster number 55 is the end of an allocated file.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Search results are found in which of the following files? Select all that apply.
A. The evidence file
B. The configuration Searches.ini file
C. The case file
Answer: C

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NO.11 Hash libraries are commonly used to:
A. Compare a file header to a file extension.
B. Identify files that are already known to the user.
C. Compare one hash set with another hash set.
D. Verify the evidence file.
Answer: B

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NO.12 The EnCase default export folder is:
A. A case-specific setting that cannot be changed.
B. A case-specific setting that can be changed.
C. A global setting that can be changed.
D. A global setting that cannot be changed.
Answer: B

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NO.13 You are an investigator and have encountered a computer that is running at the home of a
suspect. The computer does not appear to be a part of a network. The operating system is
Windows XP Home. No programs are visibly running. You should:
A. Pull the plug from the back of the computer.
B. Turn it off with the power button.
C. Pull the plug from the wall.
D. Shut it down with the start menu.
Answer: A

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NO.14 How are the results of a signature analysis examined?
A. By sorting on the category column in the Table view. By sorting on the category
column in the Table view.
B. By sorting on the signature column in the Table view. By sorting on the signature
column in the Table view.
C. By sorting on the hash sets column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash sets
column in the Table view.
D. By sorting on the hash library column in the Table view. By sorting on the hash
library column in the Table view.
Answer: B

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NO.15 When an EnCase user double-clicks on a file within EnCase what determines the action
that will result? Select all that apply
A. The settings in the case file.
B. The settings in the FileTypes.ini file.
C. The setting in the evidence file.
Answer: B

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NO.16 ROM is an acronym for:
A. Read Open Memory
B. Random Open Memory
C. Read Only Memory
D. Relative Open Memory
Answer: C

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NO.17 EnCase is able to read and examine which of the following file systems?
A. NTFS
B. EXT3
C. FAT
D. HFS
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.18 If a floppy diskette is in the ?drive, the computer will always boot to that drive before
any other device. If a floppy diskette is in the ??drive, the computer will always boot to
that drive before any other device.
A. False
B. True
Answer:

NO.19 The following GREP expression was typed in exactly as shown. Choose the answer(s)
that would result. Jan 1 st , 2?0?00
A. Jan 1st , 1900
B. Jan 1st , 2100
C. Jan 1st , 2001
D. Jan 1st , 2000
Answer: D

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NO.20 If cluster #3552 entry in the FAT table contains a value of ?? this would mean:
A. The cluster is unallocated
B. The cluster is the end of a file
C. The cluster is allocated
D. The cluster is marked bad
Answer: A

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NO.1 Which of the following statements are correct regarding Application Control?
A. Application Control is based on the IPS engine.
B. Application Control is based on the AV engine.
C. Application Control can be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.
D. Application Control cannot be applied to SSL encrypted traffic.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Select all
that apply.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that function as multiple,
independent units.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP , logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Only administrative users with a 'super_admin' profile will be able to enter multiple VDOMs to
make configuration changes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following must be configured on a FortiGate unit to redirect content requests to
remote web cache servers?
A. WCCP must be enabled on the interface facing the Web cache.
B. You must enabled explicit Web-proxy on the incoming interface.
C. WCCP must be enabled as a global setting on the FortiGate unit.
D. WCCP must be enabled on all interfaces on the FortiGate unit through which HTTP traffic is
passing.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Examine the exhibit shown below then answer the question that follows it.
Within the UTM Proxy Options, the CA certificate Fortinet_CA_SSLProxy defines which of the
following:
A. FortiGate unit's encryption certificate used by the SSL proxy.
B. FortiGate unit's signing certificate used by the SSL proxy.
C. FortiGuard's signing certificate used by the SSL proxy.
D. FortiGuard's encryption certificate used by the SSL proxy.
Answer: A

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NO.5 In a High Availability cluster operating in Active-Active mode, which of the following correctly
describes the path taken by the SYN packet of an HTTP session that is offloaded to a subordinate
unit?
A. Request: Internal Host; Master FortiGate; Slave FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
B. Request: Internal Host; Master FortiGate; Slave FortiGate; Master FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
C. Request: Internal Host; Slave FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
D. Request: Internal Host; Slave FortiGate; Master FortiGate; Internet; Web Server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following represents the correct order of criteria used for the selection of a
Master unit within a FortiGate High Availability (HA) cluster when master override is disabled?
A. 1. port monitor, 2. unit priority, 3. up time, 4. serial number
B. 1. port monitor, 2. up time, 3. unit priority, 4. serial number
C. 1. unit priority, 2. up time, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number
D. 1. up time, 2. unit priority, 3. port monitor, 4. serial number
Answer: B

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NO.7 What advantages are there in using a hub-and-spoke IPSec VPN configuration instead of a
fully-meshed set of IPSec tunnels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Using a hub and spoke topology is required to achieve full redundancy.
B. Using a hub and spoke topology simplifies configuration because fewer tunnels are required.
C. Using a hub and spoke topology provides stronger encryption.
D. The routing at a spoke is simpler, compared to a meshed node.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following represents the method used on a FortiGate unit running FortiOS
version 4.2 to apply traffic shaping to P2P traffic, such as BitTorrent?
A. Apply a Traffic Shaper to a BitTorrent entry in an Application Control List.
B. Enable the Shape option in a Firewall policy with a Service set to BitTorrent.
C. Define a DLP Rule to match against BitTorrent traffic and include the rule in a DLP Sensor with
Traffic Shaping enabled.
D. Specify the amount of Rate Limiting to be applied to BitTorrent traffic through the P2P settings of
the Firewall Policy Protocol Options.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Data Leak Prevention archiving gives the ability to store files and message data onto a
FortiAnalyzer unit for which of the following types of network traffic? (Select all that apply.)
A. SNMP
B. IPSec
C. SMTP
D. POP3
E. HTTP
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.10 For Data Leak Prevention, which of the following describes the difference between the block
and quarantine actions?
A. A block action prevents the transaction. A quarantine action blocks all future transactions,
regardless of the protocol.
B. A block action prevents the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C. A block action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D. A block action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

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NO.11 FSSO provides a single sign on solution to authenticate users transparently to a FortiGate unit
using credentials stored in Windows Active Directory.
Which of the following statements are correct regarding FSSO in a Windows domain environment
when NTLM and Polling Mode are not used? (Select all that apply.)
A. An FSSO Collector Agent must be installed on every domain controller.
B. An FSSO Domain Controller Agent must be installed on every domain controller.
C. The FSSO Domain Controller Agent will regularly update user logon information on the FortiGate
unit.
D. The FSSO Collector Agent will retrieve user information from the Domain Controller Agent and
will send the user logon information to the FortiGate unit.
E. For non-domain computers, the only way to allow FSSO authentication is to install an FSSO client.
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 How can DLP file filters be configured to detect Office 2010 files? (Select all that apply.)
A. File TypE. Microsoft Office(msoffice)
B. File TypE. Archive(zip)
C. File TypE. Unknown Filetype(unknown)
D. File NamE. "*.ppt", "*.doc", "*.xls"
E. File NamE. "*.pptx", "*.docx", "*.xlsx"
Answer: B,E

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