2013年11月30日星期六

Microsoft certification 070-492 exam targeted exercises

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Exam Code: 070-492
Exam Name: Microsoft (Upgrade your MCPD: Web Developer 4 to MCSD: Web Applications)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that displays stock market information.
The stock market information updates frequently and must be displayed in real-time.
You need to eliminate unnecessary header data, minimize latency, and transmit data over a
full-duplex connection.
What should you do?
A. Implement long-running HTTP requests.
B. Instantiate a MessageChannel object on the client.
C. Implement WebSockets protocol on the client and the server.
D. Configure polling from the browser.
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
Deployment administrators do not have access to Visual Studio 2102, but will have the elevated
permissions required to deploy the application to the servers.
You need to select a deployment tool for use by the deployment administrators.
Which tool should you use?
A. Publish Web Site Tool
B. Web Deployment Package
C. One-Click Publish
D. Deployment Package Editor
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are authoring unit tests.
The unit tests must test code that consumes sealed classes.
You need to create, maintain, and inject dependencies in the unit tests.
Which isolation method should you use?
A. T4 text templates and code generation
B. Stub types
C. Shim types
D. Hard-coded implementation
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application. The application is deployed in a web farm
and is accessed by many users.
The application must handle web server failures gracefully. The servers in the farm must share the
state information.
You need to persist the application state during the session.
What should you implement?
A. A state server
B. Cookieless sessions
C. A web garden on the web servers
D. An InProc session
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC news aggregation application that will be deployed to
servers on multiple networks.
The application must be compatible with multiple browsers. A user can search the website for news
articles. You must track the page number that the user is viewing in search results.
You need to program the location for storing state information about the user's search.
What should you do?
A. Store search results and page index in Session.
B. Use Application state to store search terms and page index.
C. Use QueryString to store search terms and page index.
D. Store search results and page index in TempData
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are testing an ASP .NET application.
The test plan requires that tests run against the application's business layer. You need to use the test
project template that meets this requirement. Which template should you use?
A. Web Test Project
B. Load Test Project
C. Unit Test Project
D. Coded Test Project
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application for viewing a list of contacts. The
application is designed for devices that support changes in orientation, such as tablets and
smartphones. The application displays a grid of contact tiles in portrait mode.
When the orientation changes to landscape, each tile in the grid expands to include each contact's
details. The HTML that creates the tiled interface resembles the following markup.
The CSS used to style the tiles in landscape mode is as follows.
If this CSS is omitted, the existing CSS displays the tiles in portrait mode.
You need to update the landscape-mode CSS to apply only to screens with a width greater than or
equal to 500 pixels.
Which code segment should you use?
A. @media screen and (width >= 500px) {
. . .
}
B. @media screen and (min-width: 500px) {
. . . }
C. @media screen (min-width: 500px, max-width: 1000px) {
. . .
}
D. @media resolution (min-width: 500px) {
. . .
}
Answer: B

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NO.8 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application by using Visual Studio 2012.
The application throws and handles exceptions when it runs.
You need to examine the state of the application when exceptions are thrown.
What should you do?
A. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Enable the Thrown
check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
B. From the DEBUG menu in Visual Studio 2012, select Exceptions. Disable the User-
unhandled check box for Common Language Runtime Exceptions.
C. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On">
<error statusCode="500" redirect="CustomErrors.html" />
</customErrors>
D. Add the following code to the Web.config file of the application.
<customErrors mode="On" >
<error statusCode="404" redirect="CustomErrors.html"/>
</customErrors>
Answer: A

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NO.9 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application.
You need to authenticate clients by using NT LAN Manager (NTLM).
Which authentication method should you implement?
A. Basic
B. Windows
C. Forms
D. Kerberos
Answer: B

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NO.10 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012. The application
requires several thousand content files. All content is hosted on the same IIS instance as the
application.
You detect performance issues when the application starts.
You need to resolve the performance issues.
What should you do?
A. Implement HTTP caching in the ASP .NET MVC controllers.
B. Combine the content files by using ASP .NET MVC bundling.
C. Install a second IIS instance.
D. Move the content to a Windows Azure CDN.
Answer: B

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NO.11 You are developing an ASP .NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL
Server database. You need to maintain data integrity in all situations that use transactions.
A. ReadUncommitted
B. Repeatable
C. Serializable
D. ReadCommitted
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are designing an HTML5 website.
You need to design the interface to make the content of the web page viewable in all types of
browsers, including voice recognition software, screen readers, and reading pens.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Annotate HTML5 content elements with Accessible Rich Internet Application (ARIA) attributes.
B. Convert HTML5 forms to XForms.
C. Ensure that HTML5 content elements have valid and descriptive names.
D. Use HTML5 semantic markup elements to enhance the pages.
E. Use Resource Description Framework (RDF) to describe content elements throughout the entire
page.
Answer: A,D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
You are developing an ASP .NET MVC web application in Visual Studio 2012.
The application has a model named ReservationLocation that contains properties named City and
State.
The view that displays reservations has a single text box named loc for entering the location
information. The location is entered as city, state.
There are action methods that have ReservationLocation as a parameter type. You need to ensure
that the City and State properties are correctly populated.
How should you implement model binding for the ReservationLocation type? (To answer, drag the
appropriate code segment to the correct location or locations. Each code segment may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view content.)
Answer:

NO.14 You are developing a WCF service.
A new service instance must be created for each client session.
You need to choose an instancing mode.
Which instance mode should you use?
A. PerCall
B. Single
C. Multiple
D. PerSession
E. PerRequest
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are designing a distributed application that runs on the Windows Azure platform.
The application must store a small amount of insecure global information that does not change
frequently.
You need to configure the application to meet the requirements.
Which server-side state management option should you use? (Each correct answer presents a
complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure application state
B. Sql Azure
C. Profile properties of the Windows Azure application
D. Windows Azure session state
Answer: B,D

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Explanation:
SQL Database provides a relational database management system for Windows Azure and is based
on SQL Server technology. With a SQL Database instance, you can easily provision and deploy
relational database solutions to the cloud, and take advantage of a distributed data center that
provides enterprise-class availability, scalability, and security with the benefits of built-in data
protection and self-healing.
Session States in Windows Azure. If you are a Web developer, you are probably very familiar with
managing user state - that is you are familiar with tracking user activity and actions across several
request-response exchanges that occur in Web applications. Since HTTP is a stateless protocol,
developers over the years have developed all sorts of means to manage state. You'll even find an
MSDN page providing alternatives and recommendations for state management here. Cookies,
hidden fields, and query strings are some client-side options to tracking user state. When it comes
to managing that state on the server-side, most Web developers rely on session objects.

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Exam Code: 74-325
Exam Name: Microsoft (Administering Office 365 for Small Businesses)
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Total Q&A: 88 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which perimeter network firewall ports must be open to allow full Microsoft Lync Online
functionality? (Each correct answer presents partof the solution. Choose three.)
A. Outbound TCP 443
B. Outbound UDP 50000 - 59999
C. Outbound UDP 443
D. Outbound TCP 3478
E. Outbound UDP 3478
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.2 You need to add a subject prefix to each email message sent from users in your organization to
external recipients. What should you do in the Exchange admin center (EAC)?
A. Create a DLP policy for all messages sent outside the organization.
B. Create an outbound SMTP connector.
C. Create a PolicyTip for all messages sent outside the organization.
D. Configure a mail flow rule.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your company plans to permit users to connect their own computers to corporate resources.
You need to prevent specific types of devices from connecting to your Microsoft Exchange
environment.
What should you create?
A. a mail flow rule that prevents mail delivery to the device types
B. an Outlook Web App policy that disables device types
C. a device mailbox policy that denies access to the device types
D. a device access rule that denies access to the device types
Answer: D

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NO.4 You need to migrate from an on-premises installation of Microsoft Exchange Server 2003 to
Office 365.
Which three methods can you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
Choose three.)
A. cutover Exchange migration
B. hybrid migration
C. staged Exchange migration
D. remote move migration
E. IMAP migration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 You plan to perform a remote move migration to Microsoft Exchange Online.
Which three actions must you perform first? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose three.)
A. Configure an on-premises Exchange 2013 CAS/MBX server.
B. Configure an on-premises Exchange 2010 server.
C. Configure SMTP domains in the Office 365 tenant.
D. Configure an on-premises Exchange 2007 server.
E. set up the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.6 Users report poor audio and video performance when using Microsoft LynC.
You need to test your connectivity to a Lync Online data center to collect troubleshooting
information.Which tool should you use?
A. Microsoft Lync Connectivity Analyzer
B. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer
C. Transport Reliability IP Probe
D. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
Answer: C

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NO.7 You need to place a Microsoft Exchange Online shared mailbox on litigation holD.What must
you do first?
A. Assign an Exchange Online Plan 1 license to the mailbox.
B. Apply the Litigation Hold role assignment policy to the mailbox.
C. Assign an Exchange Online Plan 2 license to the mailbox.
D. Apply the Litigation Hold sharing policy to the mailbox.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which two tools can you use to troubleshoot or identify connectivity issues between email
clients and Microsoft Exchange Online? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose
two.)
A. Microsoft Connectivity Analyzer
B. Transport Reliability IP Probe
C. Microsoft Remote Connectivity Analyzer
D. Microsoft Base.ine Security Analyzer
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Which three methods can you use to create data loss prevention (DLP) policies in Microsoft
Exchange Online? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the DLP rules from an on-premises Exchange 2013 server by using the Windows
Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. use pre-configured templates supplied by Microsoft.
C. Import pre-built policy files from outside your organization.
D. Create custom policies without pre-existing conditions.
E. Upgrade from existing Forefront Online Protection for Exchange (FOPE) DLP template policy files.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.10 Which three criteria can Exchange Online Protection use to block email messages? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose three.)
A. ip address
B. language
C. country or region
D. fully qualified domain name (FQDN)
E. email server type
Answer: A,D,E

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Exam Code: MA0-102
Exam Name: McAfee (McAfee Certified Product Specialist - HIPs )
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Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which of the following is the HIPs executable for the HIPs Client Ul?
A. FireSvc.exe
B. FireTray.exe
C. McAfeeFire.exe
D. Mfefire.exe
Answer: C

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NO.2 What detail property includes the Local Time Zone value of a managed machine?
A. Virus Scan Enterprise properties
B. McAfee Agent properties
C. Host Intrusion Prevention properties
D. System Information properties
Answer: D

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NO.3 .The option to select Create Exception upon an Intrusion Event will only be available if the IPS Rules
Policy has been configured with which of the following?
A. Adaptive Mode
B. Learn Mode
C. Create Exceptions
D. Allow Client Rules
Answer: D

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NO.4 Under which HIPs Policy category can IPS Engines be disabled for troubleshooting?
A. IPS Options
B. Firewall Rules
C. Trusted Applications (All Platforms)
D. Client Ul (Windows)
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following policy categories are considered to be mufti-slot policies? (Select the two that
apply)
A. Trusted Application
B. IPS Rules
C. Firewall Rules
D. IPS Protection
E. IPS Options
Answer: A,B

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NO.6 Which of the following is a supported browser for Host IPS and ePO? (Select the two that apply)
A. Internet Explorer
B. Firefox
C. Safari
D. Chrome
E. Opera
Answer: A,B

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NO.7 Which of the following server services is responsible for communication with the McAfee agent?
A. Apache
B. Tomcat
C. SQL
D. Event Parser
Answer: A

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NO.8 Firewall client rules are created in Adaptive Mode using which of the following parameters.?
A. Per-user
B. Per-process
C. Per-application
D. Per-signature
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following are used to create custom signatures? (Select the three that apply)
A. Signature Builder
B. Signature Creation Wizard
C. Advanced Mode
D. Standard Mode
E. Expert Mode
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which of the following is the main log file for IPS?
A. FireTray.log
B. HipShield log
C. HipMgtPlugin.log
D. McTrayHip.log
Answer: B

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NO.1 A user is unable to login on a workstation where NSCD was configured BEFORE the pam_ldap and
nss_ldap
modules. What should be done to fix this problem?
A. Restart the NSS server.
B. Restart the nscd daemon.
C. Restart the PAM server.
D. nscd is incompatible with OpenLDAP and should be disabled.
E. nscd must be started with the -ldap=yes option.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which are common procedures to implement Samba with LDAP? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Include the Samba schema into OpenLDAP.
B. Configure Samba password backend to point to OpenLDAP server.
C. Compile OpenLDAP with support to Samba authentication.
D. Include OpenLDAP core schema files into Samba configuration directory.
Answer: AB

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NO.3 After finishing configuring of a Unix client to authenticate with a Microsoft Active Directory server, login
attempts
are unsuccessful. Which of the following is most likely the cause?
A. Unix Client support is disabled in the Active Directory configuration.
B. The PAM library is searching the directory with the default search filter.
C. The slapd daemon is not running.
D. The user account in Active Directory has the remote login setting disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Select the INCORRECT statement regarding the LDIF file format:
A. It must contains a "dn" line (or distinguished name), that indicates where the attributes listed in the
following lines of
the file must be added.
B. In the file, a blank line separates one entry from another one.
C. If the attribute contains binary data, some specific configurations must be made for this entry.
D. The LDIF file accepts any type of file encoding.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following is correct about this excerpt from an LDIF file?
dn: cn=PrintOperators,ou=Groups,ou=IT,o=BR
A. dn is the domain name.
B. o is the organizational unit.
C. cn is the common name.
D. dn is the relative distinguished name.
Answer: C

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NO.6 On a Postfix mail server, the command postconf -m is run to determine if OpenLDAP is supported.
Which storage
medium would indicate support for OpenLDAP?
A. ldap
B. openldap
C. x500
D. dbm
E. ldaptable
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is true of any created custom attribute or object class?
A. It cannot be placed in one of the default distributed schema files.
B. The name must be registered with IANA to avoid conflicts with other custom schemas.
C. It must have a unique OID.
D. It must not contain any numbers.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which LDAP object class is used in a white pages implementation?
A. friendlyPerson
B. organizationalRole
C. posixAccount
D. inetOrgPerson
E. whitepageUser
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following describes correct LDAP service definitions? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. LDAP was developed as a lightweight alternative to DAP.
B. LDAPv6 is the latest stable version specified by RFCs.
C. LDAP follows the X.500 directory standard.
D. X.500 directories can run only over TCP/IP.
E. LDAP is optimized for searching information.
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 After configuring PAM and NSS to integrate with OpenLDAP, the SSH server refuses to authenticate
users who are
only in LDAP. What is the first step you should follow to debug this problem?
A. Restart the pamd service.
B. Restart the sshd service.
C. Restart the nssd service.
D. Add the Use_LDAP = yes parameter to sshd_config.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What does the LDIF acronym stand for?
A. Lightweight Database Interchange Format
B. LDAP Database Interchange Format
C. LDAP Data Internet File
D. LDAP Data Interchange Format
Answer: D

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NO.12 When assigned to the ref attribute for ou=people,dc=example,dc=com, which of the following values
will create a
subordinate knowledge link to slave.example.com?
A. ldap://slave.example.com/ou=people,dc=example,dc=com
B. ldap://slave.example.com?ou=people,dc=example,dc=com
C. ldap://slave.example.com ou=people,dc=example,dc=com
D. ldap://slave.example.com,ou=people,dc=example,dc=com
Answer: A

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NO.13 When logged in to a workstation which retrieves most of its user information from NIS, which
command can be used
to list ALL the users?
A. cat /etc/passwd
B. show users
C. ypusers list
D. getent passwd
E. cat /var/lib/nis/passwd
Answer: D

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NO.14 A private OID should be obtained for a company when:
A. that company runs out of public OIDs.
B. the company intends to use LDAP for commercial purposes.
C. the company wants to make their directory available to the public on the World Wide Web.
D. the company plans to create custom schema files for their directory.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which statements are true of object classes in an LDAP directory? (Choose TWO correct answers)
A. Auxiliary object classes - when used on their own - provide access to extended schema.
B. An entry cannot have more than one auxiliary object class.
C. An entry cannot have more than one structural object class.
D. Once an entry has been created, its structural object class cannot be changed without re-creating the
entry.
E. Abstract object classes are no longer officially support by the LDAP protocol.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Which of the following is the correct syntax for including a schema file in slapd.conf?
A. include /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema
B. allow /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema
C. permit /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema
D. add /usr/local/etc/openldap/schema/core.schema
Answer: A

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NO.17 An administrator has manually migrated local accounts to LDAP, instead of using the migration tools.
When trying to
authenticate as a user, an error is returned about invalid credentials. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. The password hash type was not included in the user's password attribute.
B. Shadow passwords are incompatible with OpenLDAP.
C. The original password from /etc/passwd was not included.
D. The administrator forgot to run slappasswd to convert the hashes in /etc/shadow.
E. The administrator forgot to run ldappasswd to convert the hashes in /etc/shadow.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following are valid LDAP client commands? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. ldappasswd
B. ldapbrowser
C. slapcat
D. ldapwhoami
E. slaptest
Answer: AD

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NO.19 What strategy is used to initialize NIS maps?
A. Create the yp.conf configuration file then restart the NIS server process.
B. Create the nis.conf configuration file then restart the NIS server process.
C. Start ypserver with the -new option.
D. Execute the make command from the /var/yp directory.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which attributes must be present when assigning the object class sambaSamAccount to a particular
user? (Choose
TWO correct answers)
A. displayName
B. sambaSID
C. uid
D. sambaLMPassword
E. sambaNTPassword
Answer: BC

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Exam Code: 190-801
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 Application Development Update)
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Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Beatricecreated a newCompositeApplicationdatabasein theNotes 8client, but whensheopens itupshe s
ees a grey page that says "This Application page does not contain any content."What does shehave to d
onext?
A. Click the menu option "View Design" to open the database in Domino Designer to edit the Composite
Application definition.
B. Click the menu option "Actions Edit Application"to open the database inthe Composite ApplicationEdit
or to edit the Composite Application definition.
C. Doubleclick the grey page to open the database in the Composite Application Editor to edit theCompo
site Application definition.
D. Rightclick the grey page to open the database inDomino Designer to edit the Composite Applicationd
efinition.
Answer:B

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NO.2 Linda has selected the database property Support Response Thread History for her Call Logapplicati
on. When she looks at thedocument fields in the Document Properties dialog box, she notices a
new field has been added toeachnew document.What field does Linda see?
A. $TUA
B. $REF
C. $SRTH
D. $REF2
Answer:A

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NO.3 Thenew Rich Text Lite "Thumbnail" input type allows you to specify theheight and width of thethumbn
ail image, alongwithwhat other attribute?
A. File type
B. Color depth
C. Image resolution
D. Attachment name
Answer:D

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NO.4 Timmy is designing a View and he wants to use the new "Split Action Button" option for one of his Ac
tions. He creates anActionwithsubactions andchecks the"Displayas split button"box, but theActiondoesn't
work as a Split button when he looks at the view in his Notes client.Why is this?
A. Split Action buttons work only for SharedActions.
B. Split Action buttons work only for Forms.
C. Split Action buttons work only for Composite Applications.
D. The "Enable Advanced Action Bar" setting in theViewproperties has not been checked.
Answer:C

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NO.5 Clarisa's agentneeds torunevery timetheAPP012serveris rebooted. Thereis noharmtodataiftheagent r
uns repeatedly, but Clarisa would like to minimize the impact to serverperformance. How should Clarisa t
rigger the agent to run?
A. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "When server starts".
B. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On event", and select "On agent manager start".
C. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "Run once", and select the schedule option"
On serverboot".
D. Set the Runtime Trigger option to "On schedule". Select "More thanoncea day". Clarisa should determ
ine how soon after a serverboot theagent must be run. The schedule frequency should be set tothat amo
unt of time.
Answer:A

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NO.6 Samirwants to designanddeploy aCompositeApplicationthat consists ofcomponents fromtwoLotus Not
es databases that both reside on the same Domino Server. He would like to include the CompositeApplic
ation definition inside one of the Lotus Notes databases, to make it easier to deploy and replicate. Can h
edo this?
A. No, a Composite Application definitionmust be hosted on aWebSphere Portal server.
B. No, a Composite Application definitionmust reside in a Lotus Notes database that is based on the"Bla
nk Composite Application" template.
C. Yes, he simply needs to click the "NewComposite Application"button in the Composite Applications A
pplication section of the Database design and begin writing the definition.
D. Yes, but first he needs to define the Composite Application in the Composite Application Editor andsa
ve the resulting XML file. Thenhe can createa new definition in the Composite Applications Application s
ection of the Database design and import the XML.
Answer:D

Lotus   190-801   190-801

NO.7 Barry has just closed theProperty Broker Editor after specifying input and output Action parameters for
his Composite Application Editor (CAE). He notices a curved arrow icon in Domino Designer next to then
ame of theWiring Property. What should Barry do to ensurethat his changes are saved within his Domino
application?
A. Click the "Refresh"button, and then click the "Open" button in the window that displays.
B. Nothing. The Property Broker automatically saves changes inside the Domino application.
C. Click the "MergeWSDLs" button and click "OK" in the confirmation prompt that thendisplays.
D. Open theWiring Property properties and ensure that the "Store in NSF" option is selected. Thechange
s will be saved within the Domino application when Domino Designer is closed.
Answer:A

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NO.8 Scotthas just createda new NSFbased Composite Application. He has addedtwo components to his a
pplication and is about to close the Composite Application Editor (CAE). What does heneed to do if heno
wwants to see how his Composite Application appears in the user interface?
A. Scott will not be able to open the Composite Application within the user interface yet. Thedatabaselau
nch properties must first be set to "Launchas Composite Application".
B. Nothing. The CAE is opened fromwithin the Composite Application. When Scott exits the CAE, he is a
utomatically presented again with the Composite Application, open in the user interface.
C. Scott will not be able to openthe Composite Application within the user interface yet. He will first needt
o open the Composite Application using Domino Designer and set theWiring Properties.
D. When Scott exits the CAE, he is back at the Notes Workspace, just as when exiting other NSFbaseda
pplications. Doubleclick on the Composite Application's icon on theWorkspace to open it in the userinterf
ace.
Answer:B

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NO.9 Luigi hascreatedaviewforhis mailfilethat shows thesize ofthe document. In thatcolumn, hewould like t
o display the size as either kilobytes or megabytes. How can Luigi accomplish this?
A. Set thenumberformat for the column to Size(K/M/G)
B. Set thenumberformat for the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
C. Set the Preferences For Display format for the column to Size(K/M/G)
D. Set the Additional Display Formattingfor the column to Bytes(K/M/G)
Answer:B

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NO.10 Thedefault view in the Notes 8 Contacts database allows you todisplay the information in the view eit
heronasingle line(as withatraditional Notesview)orin a"business card"styleformat witheachentry displayed
in an individual box and the boxes arranged in columns, scrollingvertically. To create a view that allows t
his sort of "business card"format,what type of Layout Viewer do you need to specify in theView Propertie
s?
A. Tiled
B. Boxed
C. Vertical
D. Composite
Answer:A

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NO.11 Victor has a Movie Rental Notes application witha Movie Inventory view. The database is not fulltext i
ndexed, and users are complaining about the long search times when they attempt to search thedatabas
e. How can Victor prevent searching in this database if no fulltext index has been created?
A. Select thedon't allow simple search option in theDatabase properties.
B. Deselect the allow simple search option in the Movie Inventory viewproperties.
C. Deselect theallow simple search option in the Movie Inventory document properties.
D. Select the ponfirmfull text index before search option in the Database properties.
Answer:A

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NO.12 When Bert is designing his Composite Application, he wants tohave a Notes view that publishes aUse
rName property to another view and also to a Notes form that is open in edit mode. How does he dothis?
A. He simply uses the Composite Application Editor to wire all three components together.
B. He creates oneCompositeApplicationthat wires thetwoviews together, andthenasecondCompositeAppl
ication that incorporates the first one, with the first viewwired to the form.
C. Becauseeach component can only publish a single property, he has to wire the first viewpublish theus
er name to the second view, and then wire the second view to publish the user name to the form.
D. Becausehe can publish a property only to a single component,he has to make his first viewpublish tw
o properties (e.g. UserName1 and UserName2) that both have the same data, so that one of theproperti
es is wired to the second view and the other is wired to the form.
Answer:A

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NO.13 Thomas has utilized the rightclick menu option feature inhis application to show his custom actions.
He would like to present users with just the custom actions when they rightclick with theirmouse. How ca
n heaccomplish this?
A. Remove the default menu items from the Action Bar of the view.
B. Deselect include action in ActionBar in the Action button properties of the view.
C. Deselect show default items in rightmousemenu in the Action Bar properties of the view.
D. Select emove default items in rightmousemenu?in the Action button properties of the view.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Maxie is using thenew "Defer index creation until first use" option in her views that have sortable colu
mns, in order to delay creation of these extra indices until they are needed. She notices that the extracol
umn indices are still being built immediately instead of being deferred. Why is this?
A. This option works only for categorized columns.
B. This option is related to the database's fulltext index, not the view index.
C. This option is valid only when the view is used ina composite application.
D. The server administrator needs to set the ENABLE_ON_DEMAND_COLLATIONS=1 setting in theser
ver's Notes.ini file.
Answer:D

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NO.15 Kyle is designing a Composite Application that can send a user namefrom aform to aview, by clickinga
buttonontheform. He knows hewants to definea WiringpropertycalledReceiveUserNamethat will beused
when the view is receiving a user name string that is published by the form. When he opens theProperty
Broker Editor to define "ReceiveUserName", what does he define it as?
A. Type
B. Action
C. Event
D. Property
Answer:B

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NO.16 Myrtleis modifyingthedesignofaViewin aNotesdatabase,soit canupdateapublishedProperty that the oth
er components in a Composite Application can respond to. Where does she write code that updates a Pr
operty?
A. In a view action
B. In the OnSelect event of the view
C. In theQueryModeChange event of the view
D. In theInitialize subroutine of the Global section of the view
Answer: B

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NO.17 Kristen has been asked to develop a Composite Application to "wire" the Customer, Orders, andInvent
ory applications together. She understands that this will result in communication among thedifferent piec
es of the new application. How does this communication work?
A. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The CompositeA
pplication Editor is used to define Actions and their parameters, and to configure Property Broker options
B. Components use the Composite Application Broker to communicate with each other. The CompositeA
pplication Editor is launched fromDominoDesigner to define Broker Properties and configure Actions and
their parameters.
C. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. TheProperty Broker Editor is l
aunched directly from Domino Designer (orcan be launched via the CAE) to define Properties and config
ure Actions and their parameters.
D. Components use the Property Broker to communicate with each other. Domino Designermust first be
used to define theWiring Properties. Composite Application Broker options can then be configured using
the Composite Application Editor orfromwithin Domino Designer.
Answer:C

Lotus   190-801 test answers   190-801 test questions

NO.18 Nina has been asked toadd several views to theSales.nsf database, manyof which are to includemulti
plesortedcolumns andmultipleusersortable columns. Howcanshe helpminimize theimpact totheserverfro
m these new views?
A. Select the "Defer index creationuntil first use" Advanced Option from the Advanced tab of thedatabase
properties.
B. Open each view that includes sorted or usersortable columns. Select the "Defer index creation until fir
st use" Index option from the Advanced tab of theviewproperties.
C. Open each view that includes sorted columns. From the Sorting tab of the column properties of eachs
orted column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
D. Open each view that includes a usersortable column. From the Sorting tab of the columnproperties of
each usersortable column, select the "Defer index creation until first use" option.
Answer:D

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NO.19 Thenew "Composite Settings" option in a View column Properties box allows you to specifywhat?
A. An Action to performwhen a row in the view is selected
B. A Property to publishwhen a row in the view is selected
C. Whether or not to display the columnwhen the view is used in a Composite Application
D. An alternate font type, size, and color to use for that columnwhen the view is used in a CompositeApp
lication
Answer:B

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NO.20 Bonnie has a Customerview in her application that has the following columns (in order): CustomerNa
me, Customer Address, Customer Phone, Customer Comments, Last Contacted. She would like tomaxi
mize the amount of column space for the Customer Comments field. Howwould Bonnie accomplishthis in
Designer?
A. Select the "MaximumWidth"property for the CustomerComment column.
B. Set the Height indicator to 9 lines for the Customer Comments column.
C. Select the extend to useavailable windowwidth property for the Customer Comment column
D. Add the column name to the xtend to use available windowwidth property in the Customerview.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 190-849
Exam Name: Lotus (IBM Lotus Notes Domino 8 SysAdmn: Managing Users and Servers)
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Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You want to restrict simple search to enhance server performance by preventing users from searching
databases on a server that do not have full-text search enabled. In which of the following locations is this
configured?
A. The server document
B. The server notes.ini
C. The server configuration document
D. The advanced properties of each database
Answer: D

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NO.2 Breanna has registered a roaming user. By default, where are the user's files stored?
A. On all servers
B. On all mail servers
C. On the user's mail server
D. On the user's file server
Answer: C

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NO.3 The Marble Corporation has chosen to allow users the ability to initiate Eclipse updates. In which of
the following locations do they enable this ability?
A. The server document
B. The security policy document
C. The server configuration document and the client notes.ini
D. The desktop policy document and the plugin_customization.ini file
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which task performs the operation of obtaining diagnostic data after server and client crashes?
A. Fault Analyzer
B. Fault Recovery
C. Event Handler Notification
D. Automatic Diagnostic Collection
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following mail features is not available in the basic version of the Lotus Notes client?
A. Message recall
B. Attention indicators
C. Choice of preview pane location
D. Reply to all without attachments
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is enabled when the administrator specifies the maximum number of Smart
Upgrade attempts by specifying a value in the field "Maximum Concurrent Downloads"?
A. Smart Upgrade Limits
B. Smart Upgrade Maximum
C. Smart Upgrade Interval
D. Smart Upgrade Governor
Answer: D

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NO.7 When installing the Notes client, what documents are created by default that contain communication,
Java applet security and port information?
A. Account
B. Location C. Connection
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.8 The Smart Upgrade function can be configured to adjust an installation between just the Notes client or
all clients automatically. Where is the parameter read to make this automatic adjustment?
A. The Notes client notes.ini file
B. The Domino server notes.ini file that holds the Smart Upgrade database
C. The server document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
D. The server configuration document for the server that holds the Smart Upgrade database
Answer: A

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NO.9 In which of the following databases does the Server Health Monitor store it's health reports?
A. shmon.nsf
B. dommon.nsf
C. statrep.nsf
D. serverhm.nsf
Answer: B

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NO.10 Cherelle, the Domino administrator, is launching Server Health Monitoring for the first time. What
tasks are monitored by default for each server?
A. HTTP, SMTP, Adminp and the Amgr
B. The core server task, HTTP, SMTP and Adminp
C. No tasks until the administrator configures the monitoring for each server
D. All tasks currently running when the Server Health Monitor is first launched
Answer: D

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NO.11 When setting up automatic diagnostic collection for clients, you can designate which of the following?
A. Whether this feature should log the fault recovery into the local log.nsf database on the client
B. Whether this feature should export the document into an Excel spreadsheet to categorize the fault
C. Whether this feature is invisible to users or should users be prompted to designate if they want to send
a diagnostic report to the mail-in database
D. Whether this feature should create a file that gets automatically upload to the Domino HTTP server to
allow client reporting from any location over any connection speed
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is not available for modification with the install manifest?
A. Sametime
B. Activities
C. IBM Productivity Tools
D. Composite application editor
Answer: A

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NO.13 Smart Upgrade failover utilizes what search order?
A. By document link in the Notes client
B. By server name and hard-coded path to the Smart Upgrade database
C. By database replica ID and database name in the home server cluster
D. By notes.ini variable on the client listing all servers in the domain the Smart Upgrade database may be
found on
Answer: C

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NO.14 Jordan, the Domino administrator, has configured replication probes in DDM but nothing is being
reported into the DDM database. What could be the possible cause of this?
A. Replication is up to date and was attempted, but was considered Null.
B. Replication was attempted but the destination server could not be reached for the probe check.
C. Replication was performed and numerous changes were made to the source database and none to the
spokes.
D. Replication was attempted but the source server did not have proper access to replicate so replication
was skipped.
Answer: A

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NO.15 New and updated features and plug-ins for the Lotus Notes client are downloaded from which of the
following?
A. Client sites
B. Updates sites
C. Smart Upgrade sites
D. Provisioning client
Answer: B

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NO.16 The Domino administrator has enabled auto-save for all users. Where are auto-save documents
stored?
A. To a user's local database
B. To a user's mail database located on the server
C. To an administrator defined server database per user
D. To an administrator defined central repository database
Answer: A

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NO.17 Shawn has modified a DDM probe document. What must be performed for this probe change to
become active immediately?
A. Run the console command "reload probes".
B. Run the console command "restart probes".
C. Do nothing as modified probe documents take effect immediately.
D. Probes are automatically reloaded based on the configuration time specified in DDM.nsf.
Answer: C

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NO.18 The condensed Directory Catalog is created from which template?
A. dircat.ntf
B. dircat5.ntf
C. dircat7.ntf
D. catalog.ntf
Answer: B

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NO.19 Liz wishes to disable transaction logging for a particular database on a server with transaction logging
enabled. However, she cannot see the Advanced Database Properties to do so. What is the cause of
this?
A. She is not in the Administrators field on the server document.
B. She cannot selectively turn off transaction logging for individual databases.
C. She must add the notes.ini line to the server DisableTransLog=name of database.
D. Transaction logging can only be disabled per document, not for an entire database.
Answer: A

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NO.20 You are enabling a policy for the Productivity Tools. Which of the following is NOT available to
configure in this policy?
A. The ability to open SmartSuite files
B. The ability to allow the user to run macros
C. The ability to allow the use of Productivity Tools
D. The ability to restrict attaching Productivity Tool documents
Answer: D

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NO.1 Sven created a form read access list for a form in his web-enabled database.
Which is true about his form read access list when users access the database via the
web?
A. Web users not listed in the form read access list will not be able to open
documents created with that form.
B. Form read access lists are not supported when databases are accessed via the web.
C. Web users will see links to documents that they cannot access.
D. Anonymous users will see documents regardless of the form read access list.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Jean Philip has set up SSL for the "Appointment" database and SSL is set up on the
Domino Server. He has also selected "Maximum Internet name & password access"
in the ACL Advanced settings as Reader. The group "Road Sales" is Editor in the
ACL. Default is Author. Some of the members of "Road Sales" connect to the
database through a Web client. The Web users authenticate using SSL Client
certificates.
What level of access will they have in the database?
A. No access
B. Reader
C. Editor
D. Author
Answer: C

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NO.3 Hannibal wants to protect the HTML and graphics files used in his Web site
application.
Which one of the following will work?
A. Enforcing ECLs.
B. Enforcing consistent ACLs.
C. Creating File Protection documents.
D. This cannot be done using Notes and Domino.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Ivy, the database manager, has not selected the Create personal folders/views option
for Olga, an Author in the database ACL.
Which one of the following statements describes how Olga is affected?
A. She cannot create any personal folders or views.
B. She can create personal folders, but not personal views.
C. She can create personal folders and views which are stored locally.
D. He can create personal folders and views which are stored on the server.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Ronny has submitted some technical support questions to the STS company on their
Web site. After 24 hours he goes to the STS folder on the site and reviews feedback.
When he selects the folder, he receives a message that he is not authorized to access.
However, he authenticated using and SSL Client Certificate and has Author access
in the database.
Why can't Ronny open the folder?
A. He needs Editor access or higher.
B. He needs to be added to the folder Read Access list.
C. He needs to be added to the Directly Link Access list.
D. He needs to be added to the View Read Access list.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which one of the following does this formula do when it is in a form action?
@MailSend("User1";"";"";" Urgent meeting";" Please
attend";"")
A. Sends a memo containing a subject and a copy to User1.
B. Sends a memo containing two body field entries to Use1.
C. Sends a memo containing a subject and a remark to User1.
D. Sends a memo with the document attached as a document link.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Lilly has created a form that contains a field of Authors data type. The Role
[Manager] is listed in the Authors field. Arthur is a reader in the ACL of the
database that contains this form and is assigned the [Manager] Role.
What can Arthur do with documents created from this form?
A. Read documents only since his ACL is Reader.
B. Edit all documents created from any form within this database.
C. Edit documents created from this form by other users and only read all other
documents within the database.
D. Edit and delete documents created from this form and only read other documents
within this database.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Harry would like approval of vacation requests to bear his signature when the
document is mailed back to the person requesting vacation.
What does the form need to contain in order to have an electronic signature
attached to the document when mailed?
A. The reserved field "MailOption".
B. One sign-enabled field only.
C. Access controlled section.
D. A minimum of one sign-enabled field and a SendTo field.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which one of the following access levels does Erhard need to create Roles in the
ACL?
A. Author
B. Manager
C. Designer
D. RoleCreator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which is a true statement regarding acceptable names that can be placed in the
ACL?
A. Wildcard characters (*) can be used in the ACL, except in the organizational unit
components of a name.
B. You can add to an ACL the names of any individuals with certified Notes user
IDs.
C. Hierarchical naming cannot be used in the ACL.
D. User, server, and group names can be added to the ACL but database replica IDs
are not an acceptable entry in the ACL.
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is the minimum level in the Access Control List that Larry can assign users
who must run a shared agent in the Certkiller Sales database?
A. Designer
B. Reader
C. Author
D. Depositor
Answer: B

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NO.12 APP1. NSF needs to replicate between two servers. ServerA should only be able to
add and modify information in ServerB's replica copy of APP1. NSF. ServerB
should be able to pull new and modified information from ServerA's replica copy of
APP1. NSF, but should not be able to write new or modified information to
ServerA's copy. This is not happening.
Which one of the following levels of access should each server have?
A. ServerA should have Author access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
B. ServerA should have Editor access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
C. ServerA should have Manager access to APP1. NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Reader access to APP1. NSF on ServerA.
D. ServerA should have Editor access to APP1.NSF on ServerB.
ServerB should have Depositor access to APP1. NSF on Server A.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Elvis does not see the salary documents in the Employee Personnel view.
What list does Elvis need to be a member of to see these documents?
A. View Access List
B. Form Read Access List
C. Form Create Access List
D. Database Access Control List
Answer: B

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NO.14 There are both Web browser users and Notes client users at Adam's company. He
wants to allow Web browser users to access an application, but not allow access by
Notes client users.
Which one of the following would he assign in the ACL?
A. No Access to Anonymous, and no entry for -Default.
B. Reader access -Default-, and No Access to Anonymous.
C. Reader access to -Default-, and no entry for Anonymous.
D. No Access to -Default-, and Reader access to Anonymous.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Henry wanted to use the Groups and Roles dialog box to find out why Lisa, a
content creator, is unable to author documents in an application. However, the
dialog box was NOT available.
Doing which of the following allows the dialog box to appear?
A. Enforcing local encryption.
B. Enforcing a consistent ACL.
C. Placing Lisa's name in a role.
D. Increasing Henry's ACL access level to Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.16 Ed has created an access controlled section and has placed a sign-enabled field
within this section.
Which applies to the signature?
A. The signature applies to the entire document and is generated when the document
is mailed.
B. The signature applies only to the section and is generated when the document is
mailed.
C. The signature applies to the section and the document.
D. The signature applies only to the section and is generated when the document is
saved.
Answer: D

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NO.17 Rene created a form read access list for a form in his web-enabled database.
Which is true about his form read access list when users access the database via the
web?
A. Web users not listed in the form read access list will not be able to open
documents created with that form.
B. Form read access lists are not supported when databases are accessed via the web.
C. Web users will see links to documents that they cannot access.
D. Anonymous users will see the documents regardless of the form read access list.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Boris has chosen to use individual mail databases in his workflow application
because his users are remote and this will allow remote users to access mail instead
of a remote database.
Which is true regarding this workflow application method?
A. Workflow process will be quicker.
B. Forms must be stored with the documents that are sent and replication times may
be longer due to increased document size.
C. Requires less disk space than a central database.
D. Forms do not have to be stored with documents that are sent.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Lars has a workflow application and would like to set up distribution of the
information through a form that employs automatic e-mailing. His users are
primarily remote.
Which is a reason why he would have chosen this method over a central shared
database?
A. Replication is faster.
B. Remote users only need access to mail instead of accessing a remote database.
C. Requires less disk space.
D. Workflow always takes less time.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Kristy created a database with several views. Her default view has a read access list
limiting use of the view to only some of the database users.
What will happen when users restricted from using the view open the database for
the first time?
A. Users will be prompted to choose an alternative view.
B. Users will see a view other than the default view.
C. Users will not be able to open the database.
D. Users will see the view even though they aren't included in the read access list.
Answer: C

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