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Exam Code: BH0-006
Exam Name: ISEB (ITIL V3 Foundation Certificate in IT Service Management)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 418 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What would be the next step in the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) Model after:
1. What is the vision?
2. Where are we now?
3. Where do we want to be?
4. How do we get there?
5. Did we get there?
6. ?
A.What is the Return On Investment (ROI)?
B.How much did it cost?
C.How do we keep the momentum going?
D.What is the Value On Investment (VOI)?WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.2 The BEST definition of an Incident is:
A.An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B.An unplanned interruption or reduction in the quality of an IT Service
C.Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D.Any disruption to service that is reported to the Service Desk, regardless of whether the service is
impacted or not WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?
A.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B.Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C.Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D.Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service CatalogueWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.4 Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of
all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A.Service Level Management
B.Service Catalogue Management
C.Demand Management
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.5 Which of the following activities are helped by recording relationships between Configuration Items
(CIs)?
1. Assessing the impact and cause of Incidents and Problems
2. Assessing the impact of proposed Changes
3. Planning and designing a Change to an existing service
4. Planning a technology refresh or software upgrade
A.1 and 2 only
B.All of the above
C.1, 2 and 4 only
D.1, 3 and 4 onlyWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.6 Which of the following do Technology metrics measure?
A.Components
B.Processes
C.The end to end service
D.Customer satisfactionWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.7 Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A.Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B.They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C.They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D.They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.8 In the Continual Service Improvement (CSI) model, the stage 'How do we get there?' is underpinned
by which set of activities?
A.Baseline assessments
B.Service and process improvements
C.Taking measurements and recording metrics
D.Setting measurement targetsWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.9 Which of the following would be defined as part of every process?
1. Roles
2. Activities
3. Functions
4. Responsibilities
A.1 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.2 and 4 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.10 Which of the following do Service Metrics measure?
A.Processes and functions
B.Maturity and cost
C.The end to end service
D.Infrastructure availability WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.11 Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Provider Type?
A.Internal service provider
B.External service provider
C.Third-party provider
D.Shared services unit WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.12 Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have
met their targets?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Business Relationship Management
C.Service Level Management
D.Availability ManagementWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.13 Which of the following is a responsibility of Supplier Management?
A.Development, negotiation and agreement of Service Level Agreements (SLAs)
B.Development, negotiation and agreement of contracts
C.Development, negotiation and agreement of the Service Portfolio
D.Development, negotiation and agreement of organizational Level Agreements (OLAs)WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.14 What does a service always deliver to customers?
A.Applications
B.Infrastructure
C.Value
D.Resources WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.15 "Service Management is a set of specialised organizational capabilities for providing value to
customers in the form of services".
These specialised organizational capabilities include which of the following?
A.Applications and Infrastructure
B.Functions and Processes
C.Service Pipeline and Service Catalogue
D.Markets and Customers WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.16 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about communication within Service Operation are CORRECT?
1. All communication must have an intended purpose or resultant action
2. Communication should not take place without a clear audience
A.1 only
B.2 only
C.Both of the above
D.None of the above WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.18 Implementation of ITIL Service Management requires preparing and planning the effective and
efficient use of:
A.People, Process, Partners, Suppliers
B.People, Process, Products, Technology
C.People, Process, Products, Partners
D.People, Products, Technology, Partners WArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.19 The consideration of business outcomes and value creation are principles of which part of the Service
Lifecycle?
A.Continual Service Improvement
B.Service Strategy
C.Service Design
D.Service TransitionWArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.20 Which of the following activities is NOT a part of the Deming Cycle?
A.Act
B.Plan
C.Do
D.Coordinate WArialZ
ANSWER: d

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NO.21 What would you use the seven Rs of Change Management for?
A.To assist with the impact analysis for a Change request
B.To review changes after they have been implemented
C.To allocate the roles and responsibilities during the Change Management process
D.To act as a framework for implementing a ChangeWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.22 Which of the following Availability Management activities are considered to be proactive as opposed to
reactive?
1. Risk assessment
2. Testing of resilience mechanisms
3. Monitoring of component availability
A.All of the above
B.1 and 2 only
C.1 and 3 only
D.2 and 3 only WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.23 Which stage of the Change Management process deals with what should be done if the change is
unsuccessful?
A.Remediation Planning
B.Categorization
C.Prioritization
D.Review and Close WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.24 A change process model should include:
1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change with any dependences or co-processing defined,
including handling issues and unexpected events
2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation
3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions
4. Complaints procedures
A.1, 2 and 3 only
B.All of the above
C.1 and 2 only
D.1, 2 and 4 only WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.25 Within Service Design, what is the key output handed over to Service Transition?
A.Measurement, methods and metrics
B.Service Design Package
C.Service Portfolio Design
D.Process definitions WArialZ
ANSWER: b

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NO.26 A Known Error has been raised after diagnosis of a Problem was complete but before a workaround
has been found. Is this a valid approach?
A.Yes
B.No, the workaround must be found before a Known Error is created
C.No, a Known Error can only be raised after the permanent resolution has been implemented
D.No, a Known Error must be raised at the same time as a problemWArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.27 Defining the processes needed to operate a new service is part of:
A.Service Design: Design the processes
B.Service Strategy: Develop the offerings
C.Service Transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D.Service Operation: IT Operations Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.28 Which of the following BEST describes 'Partners' in the phrase "People, Processes, Products and
Partners"?
A.Suppliers, manufacturers and vendors
B.Customers
C.Internal departments
D.The Facilities Management function WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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NO.29 Which is the BEST definition of a Configuration Item (CI)?
A.An item of hardware or software registered in the asset database
B.A collection of information used to describe a hardware or software item
C.An asset, service component or other item that is, or will be, under the control of Configuration
Management
D.Information recorded by the Service Desk when an Incident is reportedWArialZ
ANSWER: c

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NO.30 Which processes review Underpinning Contracts on a regular basis?
A.Supplier Management and Service Level Management
B.Supplier Management and Demand Management
C.Demand Management and Service Level Management
D.Supplier Management, Demand Management and Service Level Management WArialZ
ANSWER: a

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Exam Code: ISEB-SWT2
Exam Name: ISEB (ISTQB-ISEB Certified Tester Foundation Level)
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Total Q&A: 117 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 During which activity of the Fundamental Test Process test process do you review the test basis?
A. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
B. Test implementation and execution
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test planning and control
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which tasks would USUALLY be performed by a test leader and which by the tester?
a. Adapt planning based on test results.
b. Create test specifications.
c. Plan tests.
d. Write or review a test strategy
A. c and d by the test leader. a and b by the tester
B. a and b by the test leader. c and d by the tester.
C. a and d by the test leader. b and c by the tester
D. a, c and d by the test leader. b by the tester.
Answer: D

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NO.3 When in the lifecycle should testing activities start?
A. As early as possible
B. After the test environment is ready
C. After the requirements have been reviewed
D. Once the code is available to test Answer: A

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NO.4 A system under development contains complex calculations and decision logic, and it is assessed as
high risk because of the relative inexperience of the development team in the application domain. Which
of the following would be the MOST appropriate choice of test design technique for component testing?
A. Decision testing.
B. Statement testing
C. State transition testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
Answer: A

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NO.5 How is the scope of maintenance testing assessed?
A. Scope is related to the risk, size of the changes and size of the system under test
B. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
C. Scope is defined by the size and type of system being changed
D. Scope is related to the number of system users affected by the change.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.
A. b, c and d are true. a and e are false
B. a is true. b, c, d and e are false
C. c, d and e are true. a and b are false
D. a, b and d are true. c and e are false
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true in relation to component testing?
a. Stubs may be used.
b. May cover resource behaviour (e.g. memory leaks).
c. Tests the interactions between software components.
d. Defects are typically fixed without formally managing these defects.
A. a, c and d
B. a, b and d
C. b, c and d
D. a, b and c
Answer: B

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NO.8 Given the following sample of pseudo code: 01 Input number of male rabbits 02 Input number of
female rabbits 03 If male rabbits > 0 and female rabbits > 0 then 04 Input Do you want to breed (Yes / No)
05 If breed = No? 06 Print Keep male and female rabbits apart!? 07 End if 08 End If. Which of the
following test cases will ensure that statement ?6?is executed?
A. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = yes?
B. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 1, breed = no?
C. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 2, breed = yes?
D. male rabbits = 1, female rabbits = 0, breed = no?
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which one of the following statements about approaches to test estimation is true?
A. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
uses the knowledge of the owner of the tasks or experts
B. A metricsbased approach is based on creating a workbreakdown structure first. an expertbased
approach is based on input from estimation experts
C. A metricsbased approach is based on data gathered from previous projects. an expertbased approach
is based on a workbreakdown structure
D. A metricsbased approach is based on an analysis of the specification documents. an expertbased
approach is based on the opinion of the most experienced tester in the organisation
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which ADDITIONAL test level could be introduced into a standard Vmodel after system testing?
A. System Integration Testing
B. Acceptance Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Component Integration Testing
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following is a MAJOR task of evaluating exit criteria and reporting?
A. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders
B. Logging the outcome of test execution
C. Repeating test activities as a result of action taken for each discrepancy.
D. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system
Answer: A

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NO.12 A system requires 100% decision coverage at component testing for all modules. The following module
has been tested with a single test case.
The test case follows the path A, B, D, E, F, G. What level of decision coverage has been achieved?
A. 100%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 90%
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following BEST describes a datadriven approach to the use of test execution tools?
A. Monitoring response times when the system contains a specified amount of data
B. Manipulation of databases and files to create test data
C. Using a generic script that reads test input data from a file
D. Recording test scripts and playing them back
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is GENERALLY true of testing?
a. Testing can show the presence of defects.
b. Testing reduces the probability of uncovered defects.
c. Testing can show that a previously present defect has been removed.
d. Testing can prove that software is defect free.
A. a, b and c
B. a, b and d
C. a, c and d
D. b, c and d Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following are characteristics of good testing in any life cycle model? A. Every
development activity has a corresponding test activity.
b. Testers review development documents early.
c. There are separate levels for component and system integration test.
d. Each test level has objectives specific to that level.
e. Each test level is based on the same test basis.
A. a, d and e
B. b, c and e
C. a, c and d
D. a, b and d
Answer: D

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Exam Name: ISEB (The ITIL Foundation - 2011)
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Total Q&A: 198 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Answer: D

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NO.2 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service
be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make
their customers successful
Answer: D

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NO.5 The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are
these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT
infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Answer: B

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NO.7 Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often
undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom - Information - Data - Knowledge
B. Data - Information - Knowledge - Wisdom
C. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - Data
D. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major
change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Answer: A

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NO.1 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.2 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.3 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.4 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.5 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

NO.6 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.7 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.8 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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NO.9 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.10 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

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NO.1 Verification points can be renamed after the script is recorded.
A.True
B.False
Correct:A

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NO.2 Given: You have minimized the Robot main window during recording and you are using the
default keyboard mappings. Which of the following procedures will bring the Robot main window
back to the foreground? (Select all that apply.)
A.Press F5 .
B.Click Robot on the Windows taskbar.
C.Click Open Robot Window on the GUI Record toolbar.
D.Use the hot key combination CTRL+SHIFT+F .
Correct:B C D

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NO.3 What aspect of the By Location identification method is used with an Object Data verification
point?
A.Screen and pixel coordinate locations
B.User-defined DLL locations
C.Columns and Rows By Locations
D.Value and Key By Locations
Correct:C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the Object Properties verification point type?
A.To compare the properties of a window; e.g. normal, minimized, maximized, or hidden
B.To capture and compare properties of standard Windows objects
C.To compare the properties of the application; e.g. control location, menu options, etc.
D.To test data in Windows objects that contain text; for example, pushbuttons and labels
Correct:B

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NO.5 How can a synchronization failure between the test script and the application be corrected?
(Select all that apply.)
A.Use external data files.
B.Use a wait state.
C.Adjust delays between commands.
D.View data with the Comparators.
E.Customize test log messages.
Correct:B C

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NO.1 In a museum, XML data stored on powerful servers is served to customers through Web browsers
running on network-connected computers. The performance of those computers is limited. Which of the
following approaches will best suit the XML transformation?
A. Pass both the XML data and stylesheets to web browsers.
B. Output XHTML via a server-side XSL transformation.
C. Use only a subset of the XHTML and use Format Objects to apply style.
D. Transform the XML data into the open format document and display.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following answers best defines the XForms design goal?
A. Utilizes external DTD for field types and value limits.
B. Encapsulates all JavaScript code within data elements.
C. Defines complex input controls based on assigned Schema.
D. Separates the forms content from presentation.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the result of the following XSLT template if the value of k is the string 'foo'?
<xsl:template name="Do">
<xsl:param name="j" select="3"/>
<xsl:param name="k"/>
<xsl:if test="$j">
<xsl:value-of select="$k"/>
<xsl:call-template name="Do">
<xsl:with-param name="j" select="$j - 1"/>
<xsl:with-param name="k" select="$k"/>
</xsl:call-template>
</xsl:if>
</xsl:template>
A. 'foo'
B. 'foo' (repeated until stack overflow)
C. 'foofoofoo'
D. 'foo foo foo'
Answer: C

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NO.4 Consider the following XML document:
<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?>
<Books>
<Book ID="001">
<Title>Finding New World</Title>
<Author>Jone Smith</Author>
</Book>
<Book ID="080">
<Title>How to Programming</Title>
<Author>Tom Alston</Author>
</Book>
</Books>
An XML developer wants to generate a HTML document that lists the ID, title and author of a book in a
HTML table. Which of the following stylesheets can achieve the desired result?
A. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?>
<xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match="Books">
<html>
<body>
<table width="100%" border="1">
<xsl:for-each select="/">
<tr>
<td><xsl:value-of select="@ID"/></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Title" /></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Author" /></td>
</tr>
</xsl:for-each>
</table>
</body>
</html>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
B. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?>
<xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match="/">
<html>
<body>
<table width="100%" border="1">
<xsl:for-each select="Books/Book">
<tr>
<td><xsl:value-of select="@ID"/></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Title" /></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Author" /></td>
</tr>
</xsl:for-each>
</table>
</body>
</html>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
C. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?>
<xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match="/">
<html>
<body>
<table width="100%" border="1">
<xsl:for-each select="Books/Book">
<tr>
<td><xsl:value-of select="ID"/></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="." /></td>
</tr>
</xsl:for-each>
</table>
</body>
</html>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
D. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?>
<xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform">
<xsl:template match="Books">
<html>
<body>
<table width="100%" border="1">
<xsl:for-each select="Book">
<tr>
<td><xsl:value-of select="ID"/></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Title" /></td>
<td><xsl:value-of select="Author" /></td>
</tr>
</xsl:for-each>
</table>
</body>
</html>
</xsl:template>
</xsl:stylesheet>
Answer: B

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NO.5 Calculating sub-totals from an XML document using XSL transformation requires special
considerations. Which of the following options is the best solution to solve this problem?
A. Create a fragment variable containing the values to total, and then use the node-set() XSLT extension
and the XPath "sum()" function to calculate the value.
B. Create a special XSLT variable that contains the results of an XPath query that performs a "sum()" of
the values to be totaled.
C. Use XSLT recursion to define a variable value that calculates the "value-of" the elements to be
sub-totaled.
D. Use XSLTC to precompile a custom Java translet that will extract the values to be totaled and returns
the sum of those values. This return value is then used in an XSL variable for output.
Answer: A

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NO.6 XML data is stored and retrieved within a relational database for a data-centric application by means of
mapping XML schema elements to database tables. There are concerns that the queries and updates to
this database are slow due to the number of joins required in the SQL. What is the best option for
improving the storage and retrieval of this XML data?
A. Transform XML documents into canonical form before persisting.
B. Modify the current XML schema by converting elements to attributes where possible and re-map to
tables in order to reduce the number of tables and therefore the number of joins required.
C. Store the XML data as CLOBs without decomposing them into relational tables and provide an 'id'
based lookup.
D. Modify the current XML schema by merging all of the XML documents into a main XML document and
query using XPath.
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What is the correct value for the match attribute of the xsl:template below to select all elements within
an XML document?
<xsl:template match="">
<xsl:value-of select="name()"/>
<xsl:value-of select="@id"/>
<xsl:apply-templates/>
</xsl:template>
A. node()
B. */*
C. //
D. /
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which XPath axis below may be described as "all nodes that contain the context node, but not the
context node itself?"
A. ancestor::
B. ancestor-or-self::
C. namespace::
D. preceding::
Answer: A

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NO.9 The link element in the following XML fragment is the context node. Its target attribute is stored
within the xsl:variable linkTarget. What XPath expression will find the page element whose id attribute
value is described by the value of linkTarget?
<site>
<page id="000"/>
<page id="001">
<page id="001_000">
<link target="003_000"/>
</page>
<page id="001_001"/>
</page>
<page id="002"/>
<page id="003">
<page id="003_000"/>
<page id="003_001"/>
</page>
</site>
A. ..//page[@id = $linkTarget]
B. ../../page[@id = '003']/page[@id = linkTarget]
C. //page[@id = $linkTarget]
D. ancestor::page/ancestor::page/child::page/child::page[id = $linkTarget]
Answer: C

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NO.10 Given the following DTD line, which of the following XML documents is valid?
<!ATTLIST employee empNum ID #REQUIRED>
A. <employee empNum="abcde"/>
B. <employee empNum="12345"/>
C. <employee empNum=""/>
D. <employee empNum="abcde"/> ... <employee empNum="abcde"/>
Answer: A

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NO.11 Analyze the following XML and DTD fragments that implement ID, IDREF and IDREFS used to link
manager and subordinate relationships. Where is the error in the implementation of this logic?
employees.dtd:
<!ATTLIST employee empid ID #REQUIRED>
<!ATTLIST employee mgrid ID #IMPLIED>
<!ATTLIST employee mgr IDREF #IMPLIED>
<!ATTLIST employee subs IDREFS #IMPLIED>
employees.xml:
<employees>
<employee empid="e1" mgrid="m1" subs="e2"><name>Bob Smith</name></employee>
<employee empid="e2" mgrid="m2" mgr="m1" subs="e3 e4"><name>Carol
Jones</name></employee>
<employee empid="e3" mgr="m2"><name>Keith Martin</name></employee>
<employee empid="e4" mgr="m2"><name>Monica Williams</name></employee>
</employees>
A. The subs IDREFS is formatted improperly for the second employee record.
B. The mgrid must be defined as "#REQUIRED" in the DTD.
C. The empid and mgrid attributes conflict as an element may only have a single ID attribute.
D. First two records are invalid as each employee record may have either empid or mgrid attribute, but not
both.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which of the following is a trait that distinguishes XSLT 2.0 from XSLT 1.0?
A. xsl:for-each in XSLT 2.0 supports arbitrary sequences in addition to node sets.
B. xsl:value-of in XSLT 2.0 includes an attribute called "delimiter" that allows delimited sequences.
C. xsl:variable in XSLT 2.0 includes an attribute called "type" to indicate type.
D. xsl:with-param in XSLT 2.0 does not throw an error if that parameter is not defined in the called
template.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What will the following XSLT snippet return, if the value of parameter i is "redivider"?
<xsl:template name="Do">
<xsl:param name="i"/>
<xsl:variable name="j" select="string-length($i)"/>
<xsl:choose>
<xsl:when test=" $j < 2 ">
<xsl:value-of select="$i"/>
</xsl:when>
<xsl:otherwise>
<xsl:variable name="k" select="floor($j div 2)"/>
<xsl:call-template name="Do">
<xsl:with-param name="i" select="substring($i, 1, $k)"/>
</xsl:call-template>
<xsl:call-template name="Do">
<xsl:with-param name="i" select="substring($i, $k+1, $k+1)"/>
</xsl:call-template>
</xsl:otherwise>
</xsl:choose>
</xsl:template>
A. rreeddiivviiddeerr
B. rediv
C. redivider
D. rdvdr
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which two of the following may NOT be nested within a CDATA section?
A. HTML documents
B. Javascript source
C. Other CDATA sections
D. The XML escape characters (<, >, &, ', and ")
E. XSLT that needs to be processed
Answer: CE

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NO.15 An Intranet Web application provides news for thousands of users inside one company. The
application gets XML data from a database and then transforms the data into HTML with server-side XSLT.
Currently the web application performs poorly. Which of the following actions should the application
developer take to address the problem?
A. Update the database to a higher version.
B. Use well formed XHTML tags in the application.
C. Supply the XML data and the stylesheet to Web browsers.
D. Use XSL-FO to make the transformation.
Answer: C

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NO.16 An online bookstore offers services that enables customers to view the online eBooks with a variety of
Web browsers and order high quality hard copies on demand. If the bookstore stores all the book
contents with XML format, which of the following rendering approaches is the most suitable?
A. When browsers request and customers order hard copies, transform the XML data with XSL-FO and
then convert the file into PDF for viewing and printing.
B. When browsers request and customers order hard copies, render the XML data with CSS and then use
the file for viewing and printing.
C. When browsers request, render the XML data with CSS. When customers order hard copies, transform
the XML data with XSL-FO and then convert the file into PDF for printing.
D. When browsers request, render the XML data with XSL-FO and then convert the file into PDF for
viewing. When customers order hard copies, transform the XML data with CSS and then use the file for
printing.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which of the following statements regarding CSS transformation of XML is valid?
A. It can be used to render XML into PDF.
B. It can render XML into a format appropriate for printing.
C. It may only be applied to well formed XHTML documents.
D. It can merge multiple XML documents into a single XHTML for browser rendering.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A developer wishes to make an XSLT template more robust by checking a parameter passed to it for
errors and boundary conditions. The template accepts a parameter of type number. What condition
will NOT have to be checked?
A. number greater than allowed range
B. value of 0
C. type of the parameter value
D. Integer numbers
Answer: C

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NO.19 An application needs to process XML documents containing data retrieved from a legacy system.
Some of the documents use character sets which are not supported by the XML parser. Which of the
following is the best solution to address this problem?
A. Implement a custom parser to handle the legacy character sets.
B. Implement a pre-processor to convert documents with unsupported characters sets to UTF-8.
C. Define two XML Schema documents for each of the character sets.
D. Add the definitions of the legacy character sets to the parser's configuration file.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of the following is NOT included within a generated JAXB 2.0 package?
A. A name, which may be derived directly from the XML namespace URI.
B. A set of Java element interfaces representing element declarations occurring with the DTD.
C. An ObjectFactory class containing an instance factory method for each Java content and element
interface.
D. A Javadoc for the package.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-996
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ.V6.0.Solution Design)
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Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The WebSphere MQ client interface is popular in part because the client software is free, but this
is offset by a number of functional limitations. When deciding whether to deploy an application
with the client interface or with a local queue manager, these must be considered. Which of the
following is NOT a limitation of the WebSphere MQ client?
A.Clients cannot be centrally managed by WebSphere MQ tooling.
B.In the event of a network outage it can be difficult to determine if the last API call was actually
performed.
C.Data cannot be stored as messages by the client in the event of network outages.
D.Transactional processing with local units of work is not supported.
Correct:D

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NO.2 An application publishes documents in PDF format as WebSphere MQ RFH2 messages to a wide
range of recipient platforms. Which of the following is critical to ensure the documents are
processed correctly?
A.The National Language support on the recipient systems must match the code page with which the
PDF document was created.
B.The message format in the MQMD must be specified as MQFMT_NONE.
C.The PDF document size must not exceed 4MB.
D.This is only supported on Windows platforms.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Which of the following message standards is MOST appropriate for an enterprise that needs to
tag each application message with a 48 byte identifier?
A.Use the CorrelId field in the MQMD.
B.Use the ReplyToQ field from the MQMD.
C.Use the CorrelId field in the transmission queue header (MQXQH).
D.Use a customer specified message header to precede application data.
Correct:D

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NO.4 An organization will use WebSphere MQ to connect its central z/OS systems to its 20 branch
offices. Each of the 20 offices runs applications on an AIX platform. The z/OS system supports
two z/OS LPARs. One is for production and the other is for both development and testing.
Separate AIX machines are available for production and testing and development. There will be
individual queue managers supporting production, testing and development. Which of the
following naming standards is MOST appropriate?
A.Channel names will be .to..
B.z/OS queue manager names will be MQQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
C.AIX queue manager names will be AMQx where x= P, T, or D for the Production, Testing, and
Development environments.
D.Applications will query a z/OS DB2 table for the name of the correct queue manager to use.
Correct:A

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NO.5 A large enterprise has an MQ-based messaging infrastructure to support a diverse range of
applications across multiple platforms. A number of the applications are JAVA based. Some
execute in an iSeries environment. The enterprise must now begin to exchange messages with its
business partners using WebSphere MQ. Which of the following is the MOST important
consideration for the messages passed between the applications?
A.Data conversion issues are simplified if all messages are character strings.
B.The format for all messages must be an industry standard such as EDI, RosettaNet, cbXML, etc.
C.All messages must be digitally signed before being transmitted to the business partner.
D.All messages need to be encrypted before being transmitted to the business partner.
Correct:A

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Exam Code: 000-806
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Ap Svr Ntwk Deploy V6.1 Adv Admn)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 52 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 To improve scalability of a cluster bus member, an administrator proposes adding messaging engines
to the cluster. Which valid concern cannot be resolved through configuration?
A. Multiple messaging engines starting on the same cluster member; a review of available resources on
the cluster members must be conducted to determine if this can be tolerated
B. Duplicate messages may actually decrease the scalability of the application; the application developers
must be consulted to determine the performance impact
C. Message order not being preserved; the application developers must be consulted to determine
whether or not this will cause application errors
D. Additional load on the deployment manager as it directs messages to the partitioned destinations; a
review of available resources on the deployment manager must be conducted to determine if this can be
tolerated
Answer: C

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NO.2 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator has been asked to set up cache replication for
an application. The application team wants to make sure it does not loose any cache data that is
generated. What would make losing cache data least likely to happen?
A. Full group replication
B. Enable disk offload
C. Push only
D. Flush to disk
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator is configuring a cluster bus destination on a cluster with five members on five different
physical machines. The administrator will configure two messaging engines which may be run on any of
the five cluster members. What is the simplest configuration for the messaging engines' data stores that
still ensures proper fail over?
A. A file-based data store in the config directory that is kept in sync on all cluster members by the
deployment manager
B. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with one schema to be shared by the
messaging engines
C. A single remote database accessible by all cluster members with two schemas
D. Two remote databases accessible by all cluster members
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement is true about designing highly available infrastructures based on WebSphere
Application Server ND V6.1 clusters?
A. A stand-alone server topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
B. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of single
machine processing power so that should there be a failover in that environment, there will be sufficient
capacity available for the remaining nodes to pick up the workload from the failed node.
C. A vertical scaling topology provides the greatest opportunity to implement efficient use of machine
processing power so that should there be failover in that environment, there is sufficient capacity available
for the remaining cluster members to pick up the workload from the failed
cluster member.
D. A horizontal scaling topology provides the greatest amount of process isolation and therefore is the
most effective building block in combination with other stand-alone servers for building a highly resilient
cluster based infrastructure.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A WebSphere Application Server ND V6.1 administrator recently added a new cluster member. When
the administrator checked the status of the servers in the cluster, they noticed the cluster showing a state
of partially started. What does that mean?
A. All cluster members are running, but the node agents have not been started.
B. At least one of the cluster members is running.
C. The cluster was not started by the deployment manager.
D. The cluster was created, however the servers were never stopped then restarted cleanly.
Answer: B

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